Practice the most important Centre State Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims. Includes Indian Polity PYQs, objective questions, detailed explanations, answers, and practice quiz for effective revision and exam success.
This quiz contains 134 carefully selected multiple-choice questions (MCQ) with detailed explanations for each answer. Questions cover important topics from Polity.
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Centre State Relations MCQ for UPSC Prelims | Indian Polity PYQs, Objective Questions & Practice Quiz
Description
Practice the most important Centre State Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims. Includes Indian Polity PYQs, objective questions, detailed explanations, answers, and practice quiz for effective revision and exam success.
Difficulty
Hard
Num Questions
134
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
120 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following best describes the basic nature of Centre-State relations in India?
Correct Answer:
C
— A federal system with a strong Centre and elements of cooperative federalism
Explanation:
India is generally described as a federal polity with a strong Centre. The Constitution establishes a federal structure with a division of powers between the Union and the States, while also incorporating certain unitary features. Contemporary governance further emphasizes cooperative federalism and collaborative Centre-State relations.
Question 2: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Articles 256 and 257 form part of the constitutional framework governing administrative relations between the Union and the States. (2) These Articles help ensure coordination within the federal structure. (3) These Articles primarily deal with financial relations between the Union and the States.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Articles 256 and 257 are part of the constitutional framework relating to administrative relations between the Union and the States. They empower the Union to issue certain directions to States for ensuring compliance with parliamentary laws and for protecting Union executive interests. They help maintain coordination within India's federal system. They are not related to financial relations. Therefore, statements (1) and (2) are correct, while statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 3: Which of the following is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
C
— Article 262 – River Water Disputes
Explanation:
Article 262 relates to inter-State river water disputes. Article 263 relates to Inter-State Council, Article 280 to Finance Commission, and Article 249 to special legislative power of Rajya Sabha.
Question 4: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 253 gives Parliament legislative power for international obligations. (2) This power is exercised only through the Rajya Sabha. (3) State consent is not required.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to legislate for implementing international treaties. It is not limited to Rajya Sabha, hence statement 2 is incorrect. State consent is not required.
Question 5: Which of the following statements regarding Article 249 is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— It empowers the Rajya Sabha to enable Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in national interest.
Explanation:
Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha, by a two-thirds majority, to allow Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in national interest.
Question 6: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. (2) Their objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among States. (3) Their decisions are binding.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 2
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are statutory, not constitutional bodies, and their decisions are not binding. Only statement 2 is correct.
Question 7: Which of the following statements regarding Article 262 is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— It empowers Parliament to make laws for inter-State river water dispute resolution
Explanation:
Article 262 deals with inter-State river water disputes and empowers Parliament to make laws for such disputes and restrict judicial jurisdiction.
Question 8: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Under Article 257(1), the Union may issue directions to States to ensure that the exercise of State executive power does not impede or prejudice the exercise of Union executive power. (2) Article 257 is related only to taxation. (3) Article 257 reflects the principle of administrative coordination between the Union and the States.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Article 257(1) empowers the Union to issue directions to States to ensure that the exercise of State executive power does not impede the exercise of Union executive power. The Article also contains specific provisions relating to communications and railways. Therefore, statement (1) is correct. Statement (2) is incorrect because the Article is unrelated to taxation. Statement (3) is correct as it forms part of the administrative relations framework promoting coordination between the Union and the States.
Question 9: Which of the following statements regarding Articles 355 and 356 is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 355 imposes a duty upon the Union, whereas Article 356 provides a remedial power in the event of constitutional breakdown in a State.
Explanation:
Article 355 imposes a constitutional duty upon the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that State governments function in accordance with the Constitution. Article 356 empowers the President to take appropriate action when the constitutional machinery of a State fails. Thus, Article 355 is a duty-imposing provision, while Article 356 is a remedial provision.
Question 10: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) During President’s Rule under Article 356, legislative powers of the State may be exercised by Parliament or under its authority. (2) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is mandatory during President’s Rule. (3) Proclamation of President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 356, State legislative powers may be exercised by Parliament or its authority, hence statement 1 is correct. Dissolution is not mandatory; the Assembly may be kept in suspended animation, hence statement 2 is incorrect. As held in S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), President’s Rule is subject to judicial review, hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 11: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 249 requires a special majority of the Rajya Sabha. (2) Article 252 is based on initiative by States. (3) Article 250 is related only to international treaties.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 249 is based on Rajya Sabha special majority and is correct. Article 252 is based on State consent/initiative and is correct. Article 250 relates to National Emergency, not international treaties, hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 12: Which of the following statements regarding the Finance Commission is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— It recommends distribution of financial resources between the Union and States
Explanation:
The Finance Commission, under Article 280, is a constitutional body responsible for recommending the distribution of taxes, grants, and financial arrangements between the Union and States.
Question 13: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Zonal Councils are established by the Constitution. (2) They were created after States reorganisation to promote regional coordination. (3) Their objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among States.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Hence statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 14: Which of the following best describes Article 253?
Correct Answer:
A
— Legislative power of Parliament over State List subjects for implementation of international treaties
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws even on State List subjects for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions. It ensures domestic implementation of India’s international obligations.
Question 15: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 262 empowers Parliament to make laws for adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. (2) Under this provision, Parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes. (3) This provision is limited to the Concurrent List.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to make laws for settlement of river water disputes and to exclude or restrict the jurisdiction of courts. It is not limited to any list but is a subject-specific constitutional exception. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 16: Which of the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— It is an advisory body for coordination between the Union and States
Explanation:
Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council is an advisory body intended to promote coordination between the Union and States and among States, discuss disputes, and deliberate on matters of common interest. Its decisions are not binding and it is not a judicial body.
Question 17: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a special resolution in national interest empowering Parliament to legislate on State List subjects. (2) The basis of this power is a simple majority of the Lok Sabha. (3) This power is based on a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha and remains effective for a limited period.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is necessary in national interest, Parliament may legislate on State List subjects. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as the power is not based on Lok Sabha majority but Rajya Sabha’s special majority.
Question 18: Which of the following statements best reflects the correct meaning of Article 257[2]?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Union may give directions to States regarding the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance.
Explanation:
Article 257[2] empowers the Union Government to give directions to a State regarding the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance. It is not a general power to issue directions on all matters and has no connection with taxation or treaty implementation.
Question 19: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect each State against external aggression and internal disturbance. (2) Article 355 imposes a constitutional obligation on the Union. (3) Article 355 is seen as the constitutional basis justifying the use of Article 356.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 355 imposes a constitutional duty on the Union to protect States and ensure governance according to the Constitution. It also provides the constitutional background for the use of Article 356. Hence, all three statements are correct.
Question 20: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 356 can be invoked only when there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a State. (2) The S. R. Bommai v. Union of India [1994] judgment brought the use of Article 356 under judicial review. (3) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is mandatory before imposing President’s Rule.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 356 can be invoked when the President is satisfied that the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution; this is commonly referred to as a failure of constitutional machinery. Hence statement (1) is correct. In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that a proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review. Hence statement (2) is correct. Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is not mandatory before imposing President's Rule; the Assembly may be kept under suspended animation. Hence statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 21: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding Article 253?
Correct Answer:
C
— It empowers Parliament to legislate on State List for implementation of international treaties
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws on State List subjects for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions, thereby fulfilling India’s international obligations.
Question 22: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— Finance Commission is a key instrument of fiscal balance between Union and States
Explanation:
The Finance Commission, established under Article 280, ensures equitable distribution of financial resources between the Union and States and maintains fiscal balance in the federal structure.
Question 23: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. (2) Their objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among States and between the Union and the States. (3) Their decisions are binding.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 only
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They promote cooperation, coordination, and discussion of common issues among States and between the Union and the States. Their recommendations are advisory in nature and are not legally binding.
Question 24: Which of the following is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 262 – Inter-State river water disputes
Explanation:
Article 262 deals with inter-State river water disputes, Article 263 with Inter-State Council, and Article 280 with the Finance Commission.
Question 25: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by two-thirds majority of members present and voting. (2) In Article 252, Rajya Sabha plays a decisive role. (3) Article 253 expands Parliament’s legislative power due to international obligations.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Article 249 is based on special majority of Rajya Sabha. Article 252 is initiated by States and Rajya Sabha has no decisive role. Article 253 expands Parliament’s legislative power for implementing international obligations.
Question 26: Which of the following statements is correct regarding Article 257?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Union can issue directions to States in matters of national importance
Explanation:
Under Article 257, the Union may issue directions to States to ensure that State executive power does not obstruct Union executive functions, especially in matters of national or strategic importance.
Question 27: What was the major impact of the S.R. Bommai vs Union of India (1994) judgment?
Correct Answer:
B
— Judicial review over misuse of Article 356 was established
Explanation:
The S.R. Bommai judgment established that the President’s satisfaction under Article 356 is subject to judicial review and that the test of majority should be conducted on the floor of the House.
Question 28: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 356 can be invoked only in cases of internal disturbance. (2) Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance. (3) Articles 355 and 356 are closely connected in practice.
Correct Answer:
D
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Article 356 may be invoked when the constitutional machinery of a State fails and not merely on the ground of internal disturbance. Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect States and ensure constitutional governance. In practice, Article 355 provides the constitutional background for action under Article 356, and the relationship between the two provisions has been discussed in judicial decisions such as the S.R. Bommai case.
Question 29: Which of the following is most closely related to Article 365?
Correct Answer:
A
— Failure of a State to comply with Union directions
Explanation:
Article 365 states that if a State fails to comply with Union directions, the President may consider that constitutional governance has failed, leading to the possible imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356.
Question 30: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) During a Financial Emergency, the Union may issue directions regarding the financial management of States, including salaries and allowances. (2) Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India. (3) Parliamentary approval is not required for the proclamation of a Financial Emergency.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Under Article 360, during a Financial Emergency the Union may issue directions concerning financial propriety and expenditure, including reduction of salaries and allowances. No Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India so far. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
Question 31: Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the Inter-State Council?
Correct Answer:
A
— It is an advisory body constituted under Article 263.
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council is an advisory body constituted under Article 263 to promote coordination, dispute resolution, and policy coordination between the Union and States and among States.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is correct in the context of financial relations?
Correct Answer:
D
— Recommending the principles governing tax distribution between the Union and the States is a primary function of the Finance Commission.
Explanation:
Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends the principles governing the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and among the States. It is an important institution for maintaining fiscal balance in India's federal system.
Question 33: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 249 provides a special role to the Rajya Sabha. (2) In Article 252, the role of Rajya Sabha is mandatory. (3) Article 253 gives Parliament wide powers for international obligations.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Article 249 gives a special role to the Rajya Sabha in enabling Parliament to legislate on State List in national interest. Article 252 is initiated by States and does not assign a mandatory role to Rajya Sabha. Article 253 provides wide legislative powers for implementing international obligations.
Question 34: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Articles 256–257?
Correct Answer:
C
— These Articles empower the Union to issue administrative directions to States.
Explanation:
Articles 256 and 257 empower the Union to issue administrative directions to States to ensure effective implementation of laws made by Parliament and Union functions. They are not related to financial or judicial matters.
Question 35: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. (2) The Chairperson of Zonal Councils is the Union Home Minister. (3) The decisions of Zonal Councils are binding.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 only
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are not constitutional bodies; they are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are chaired by the Union Home Minister. Their decisions are advisory and not binding.
Question 36: Which of the following bodies has been established to promote coordination and cooperation between the Union and States?
Correct Answer:
A
— Inter-State Council
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council (Article 263) is a key forum for promoting coordination and cooperation between the Union and States and among States themselves, and is considered a strong example of cooperative federalism.
Question 37: Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between Articles 250 and 253?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 250 relates to Parliament’s legislative power over State List during National Emergency, whereas Article 253 relates to implementation of international treaties and agreements.
Explanation:
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during National Emergency. Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions even on State List subjects.
Question 38: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 262 empowers Parliament to make laws for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. (2) Parliament may by law exclude the jurisdiction of all courts, including the Supreme Court, in such disputes. (3) Article 262 itself establishes a constitutional tribunal for resolving such disputes.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Article 262 authorises Parliament to provide for adjudication of inter-State river water disputes and to exclude court jurisdiction. However, the Constitution itself does not establish a tribunal; tribunals are created through legislation such as the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Question 39: Under which Article can the Union direct States not to obstruct the construction and maintenance of means of communication of national importance?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 257
Explanation:
Article 257 empowers the Union to issue directions to States so that they do not obstruct the exercise of Union executive power, especially in matters such as communications of national or strategic importance and railway safety. It is an important example of administrative control in the federal structure.
Question 40: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance. (2) Article 355 itself does not confer the power to impose President’s Rule in a State. (3) Article 355 also imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 355 imposes a dual obligation upon the Union: (i) to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance, and (ii) to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the Constitution. The power to impose President’s Rule is derived from Article 356 and not from Article 355 itself.
Question 41: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) The Inter-State Council is constituted by the President under Article 263. (2) Zonal Councils are established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. (3) Both bodies aim to promote cooperation and coordination among states.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three statements are correct. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body under Article 263, while Zonal Councils are statutory bodies. Both aim to strengthen cooperation and coordination in India’s federal structure.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Articles 249, 250, 252 and 253 allow Parliament to legislate on State List subjects under special circumstances.
Explanation:
These Articles provide Parliament with powers to legislate on State List subjects under special conditions such as national interest, emergency, state request, or international obligations.
Question 43: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) The Finance Commission recommends principles for distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States. (2) It also recommends principles for distribution of tax revenue among states.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends distribution of tax revenues between Union and States as well as among states, along with grants and other financial matters.
Question 44: Which of the following statements is correct regarding Article 253?
Correct Answer:
A
— Parliament may legislate on State List subjects to implement international treaties.
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects for implementing international treaties and obligations without requiring state consent or emergency conditions.
Question 45: Which of the following statements is correct regarding Zonal Councils?
Correct Answer:
D
— Their objective is to promote regional cooperation and coordination.
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are advisory in nature and aim to promote cooperation and coordination.
Question 46: Which of the following statements are correct? (1) The Inter-State Council is established to promote cooperation among states. (2) One of its functions is to discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and the States or among States. (3) It is established as a judicial body under the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council under Article 263 is an advisory body for coordination and discussion, not a judicial body. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 47: Which of the following best illustrates Article 252?
Correct Answer:
A
— Two or more states request Parliament to legislate on a State List subject.
Explanation:
Article 252 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects at the request of states, reflecting cooperative federalism.
Question 48: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 257, State executive power must not obstruct the Union executive power. (2) The Union may issue directions to states regarding communication means of national or strategic importance. (3) The Union can never issue directions regarding railway safety to states.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under Article 257, State executive power must not hinder Union executive power. The Union may issue directions regarding communication means and railway safety. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 49: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 256, the Union may issue directions to States to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. (2) Such directions are merely advisory and not binding on states.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1
Explanation:
Under Article 256, states are constitutionally obligated to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. Union directions under this article are binding, not merely advisory.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws even on State List subjects for implementing international obligations. (2) Prior consent of states is mandatory for exercising this power.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions even on State List subjects. Prior consent of states is not required.
Question 51: Which of the following best expresses the basic constitutional concept of Union-State financial relations?
Correct Answer:
A
— Constitutional determination of taxation powers and distribution of tax revenue.
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution provides a clear framework for distribution of taxation powers and revenues between the Union and the States under Part XII and related provisions to maintain fiscal balance.
Question 52: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 262 empowers Parliament to make laws regarding inter-state river water disputes. (2) Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of courts through such law.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. Article 262 empowers Parliament to make laws for the adjudication of inter-state river water disputes and also allows exclusion of jurisdiction of courts including the Supreme Court.
Question 53: Which of the following is correct regarding Zonal Councils?
Correct Answer:
B
— Their objective is to promote regional cooperation and coordination among states.
Explanation:
Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Their purpose is to promote cooperation among states, policy coordination, and discussion on common issues. Their decisions are not binding.
Question 54: Which of the following statements is correct regarding Article 252?
Correct Answer:
A
— A law made by Parliament can later be adopted by other states as well.
Explanation:
Under Article 252, Parliament may make laws on a State List subject upon request of two or more states. Other states may later adopt the same law through resolutions of their legislatures. Such a law does not automatically apply to the whole of India, and the power of amendment or repeal lies with Parliament.
Question 55: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A major function of the Inter-State Council may include inquiry and discussion of disputes between states. (2) Decisions of the Inter-State Council are legally binding on all states.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1
Explanation:
Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council may inquire into, discuss, and promote coordination regarding disputes between states. However, it is an advisory body and its decisions or recommendations are not legally binding.
Question 56: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (1) Article 256 – Enforcement of Union laws (2) Article 257 – Union control over State executive (3) Article 263 – Inter-State Council
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 256 obligates states to comply with laws made by Parliament. Article 257 relates to Union control and directions over the exercise of State executive power so that it does not obstruct the Union executive. Article 263 relates to the Inter-State Council. Hence all three pairs are correctly matched.
Question 57: Under which of the following provisions may Parliament legislate on a subject enumerated in the State List under special circumstances?
Correct Answer:
D
— Under Articles 249, 250, 252 and 253 depending on the circumstances
Explanation:
Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List under different constitutional provisions: Article 249 – in the national interest based on a Rajya Sabha resolution, Article 250 – during a Proclamation of National Emergency. Article 252 – on the request of two or more States. Article 253 – for implementing international treaties, agreements or conventions. Therefore, Parliament may acquire legislative competence over State List subjects under all these provisions, depending upon the circumstances.
Question 58: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 250 provides Parliament acquires the power to legislate on matters in the State List during the operation of a National Emergency. (2) Every law made under Article 250 becomes ineffective immediately after the end of the National Emergency.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct because under Article 250 Parliament obtains legislative power over the State List only during a National Emergency. Statement 2 is incorrect because such laws do not cease immediately after the emergency ends; rather, they may remain in force for six months after the end of the emergency.
Question 59: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 249, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha, Parliament can make laws on a subject in the State List. (2) Under Article 249, approval of the Lok Sabha is also mandatory; only then does the Rajya Sabha’s resolution become effective.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
According to Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of its present and voting members in the national interest, Parliament gains the power to legislate on a subject in the State List. For this resolution to become effective, a separate resolution by the Lok Sabha is not required. The ordinary legislative process does involve both Houses, but under Article 249 the source of power is only the special resolution of the Rajya Sabha.
Question 60: Which one of the following statements regarding inter-State river water disputes is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Parliament may, by law, exclude the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes.
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide by law for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. It also authorises Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes. Pursuant to this provision, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
Question 61: Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— A law made by Parliament under Article 252 can be amended or repealed only by Parliament.
Explanation:
Under Article 252, a law made by Parliament on a State List subject applies only to those States which have requested such legislation or later adopted it. Only Parliament has the authority to amend or repeal such laws; State Legislatures do not have this power. This reflects cooperative federalism based on voluntary State participation.
Question 62: Which constitutional body is primarily concerned with recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States?
Correct Answer:
C
— Finance Commission
Explanation:
The Finance Commission, established under Article 280, is primarily responsible for recommending the principles governing the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and for making recommendations regarding grants-in-aid to the States. It plays a key constitutional role in fiscal federalism, distinct from the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils.
Question 63: Which one of the following bodies has a constitutional basis?
Correct Answer:
D
— Inter-State Council
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council derives its constitutional basis from Article 263 of the Constitution. Although it is established by a Presidential Order, its existence is expressly contemplated by the Constitution. In contrast, Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, while NITI Aayog and the National Development Council are extra-constitutional bodies.
Question 64: Parliament can legislate on matters included in the State List under which of the following circumstances? (1) During the operation of a National Emergency. (2) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in the national interest under Article 249. (2) At the request of two or more States under Article 252.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Parliament may legislate on State List matters under several exceptional circumstances, including during a National Emergency (Article 250), in the national interest upon a Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 249), and at the request of two or more States (Article 252). These provisions introduce flexibility into India's federal structure while preserving the normal legislative competence of States.
Question 65: Which one of the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— It is a forum for coordination and consultation between the Union and the States.
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council is an advisory body established under Article 263 of the Constitution to promote cooperation, coordination, and policy consultation between the Union and the States as well as among the States. Its recommendations are not binding. It was established in 1990.
Question 66: Which of the following statements regarding the Zonal Councils is/are correct? (1) They were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. (2) Their objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among the States.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Their objective is to promote economic, social, and administrative cooperation among the States and to provide a forum for deliberation on regional issues. They are statutory, not constitutional, bodies and play an important role in strengthening cooperative federalism.
Question 67: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 262 — Adjudication of Inter-State River Water Disputes
Explanation:
Article 262 deals with the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Article 263 relates to the Inter-State Council, Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission, and the distribution of legislative subjects is governed by Article 246 read with the Seventh Schedule.
Question 68: Under which of the following circumstances does Parliament acquire the power to legislate on a subject included in the State List for implementing an international treaty, agreement, or convention?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 253
Explanation:
Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing any international treaty, agreement, or convention in any part of India, even with respect to matters included in the State List, if necessary. This power enables India to effectively fulfil its international obligations. It is an important example of Parliament's exceptional legislative authority within the federal framework.
Question 69: Under which of the following Articles is the obligation of the States to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament provided?
Correct Answer:
B
— Article 256
Explanation:
Under Article 256, the executive power of every State shall be exercised in such a manner as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and with any existing laws applicable in that State. For this purpose, the Union may also issue necessary directions to the States. This provision forms the basis of the administrative relationship between the Union and the States and ensures the effective implementation of parliamentary laws throughout the country.
Question 70: Which one of the following is most directly associated with the financial relations between the Union and the States?
Correct Answer:
C
— Distribution of tax revenues
Explanation:
Financial relations between the Union and the States primarily involve the distribution of taxation powers and the sharing of tax revenues. Part XII of the Constitution contains provisions relating to taxation, distribution of revenues, grants-in-aid, and other fiscal matters. These provisions help maintain fiscal balance within India's federal framework.
Question 71: Which Article of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide by law for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 262
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to enact laws for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. On this basis, the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act was enacted. The Constitution also permits Parliament to exclude or limit the jurisdiction of courts in such matters. This provision is significant for providing an institutional mechanism to resolve water disputes among States.
Question 72: The Zonal Councils were established primarily for which of the following purposes?
Correct Answer:
B
— To promote cooperation and coordination among the States
Explanation:
The Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, to promote cooperation and coordination among States in matters of common interest, including economic and social planning, border disputes, and inter-State issues. They are advisory bodies and play an important role in strengthening cooperative federalism.
Question 73: Which of the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— The President may establish it if he considers it necessary in the public interest.
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if he considers it necessary in the public interest. Its purpose is to promote coordination, cooperation, policy consultation, and the investigation and discussion of disputes between the Union and the States as well as among the States. It is an advisory, not a judicial, body. It was established in 1990.
Question 74: The constitutional provisions relating to the administrative relations between the Union and the States are primarily contained in which of the following Articles?
Correct Answer:
C
— Articles 256 to 263
Explanation:
The provisions relating to administrative relations between the Union and the States are primarily contained in Articles 256 to 263 of the Constitution. These provisions deal with the obligation of States to comply with Union laws, the power of the Union to issue directions to States, coordination between governments, and the Inter-State Council. Articles 245–255 deal mainly with legislative relations, whereas Articles 280–281 relate to the Finance Commission.
Question 75: In which Schedule of the Constitution of India is the distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and the States provided?
Correct Answer:
A
— Seventh Schedule
Explanation:
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution provides for the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Article 246 determines the legislative powers of Parliament and the State Legislatures on the basis of these lists. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules deal with Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, while the Twelfth Schedule relates to the functions of Municipalities. The Seventh Schedule is regarded as the foundation of India's federal structure.
Question 76: Parliament's power to legislate on subjects included in the State List during the operation of a National Emergency is provided under which Article of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
B
— Article 250
Explanation:
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation. Such laws cease to have effect six months after the Emergency ends, except for actions already taken under them. Article 249 relates to legislation in the national interest based on a Rajya Sabha resolution, whereas Article 252 deals with legislation at the request of two or more States.
Question 77: If the Legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to enact a law on a subject included in the State List, under which Article does Parliament derive this power?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 252
Explanation:
Under Article 252, if the Legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List, Parliament may enact a law for those States. Other States may subsequently adopt the law by passing similar resolutions. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by Parliament. This provision represents an important feature of cooperative federalism.
Question 78: Which one of the following subjects is generally included in the State List?
Correct Answer:
C
— Public Order
Explanation:
According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Public Order is a subject under the State List, whereas Defence, Foreign Affairs, and Citizenship are subjects under the Union List. Under normal circumstances, only the State Legislature has the power to legislate on subjects included in the State List. However, the Constitution provides certain exceptional situations in which Parliament may also legislate on State List subjects.
Question 79: According to the Constitution of India, Parliament may legislate on a matter included in the State List in the national interest when:
Correct Answer:
A
— The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.
Explanation:
According to Article 249 of the Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws with respect to a matter in the State List, Parliament acquires the power to legislate on that subject. Such a resolution remains in force for one year and may be extended for one year at a time by following the same procedure. This provision provides the necessary flexibility within India's federal system.
Question 80: Assertion (A): Cooperative federalism is an important feature of the Indian federal system. Reason (R): The Constitution envisages coordination and mutual cooperation between the Union and the States in the exercise of their legislative, administrative, and financial powers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Cooperative federalism emphasizes coordination, consultation, and mutual cooperation between the Union and the States. The Constitution contains several provisions that promote such cooperation in legislative, administrative, and financial matters. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 81: Assertion (A): Article 257 empowers the Union to issue directions to the State Executive in certain specified matters. Reason (R): This power has been conferred to ensure that the executive power of a State does not impede the exercise of the executive power of the Union.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 257, the executive power of a State is required to be exercised in a manner that does not impede the exercise of the executive power of the Union. For this purpose, the Union has been empowered to issue directions to the States in certain specified circumstances. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 82: Assertion (A): Zonal Councils are permanent institutions established by the Constitution. Reason (R): They were constituted under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are not constitutional bodies. They were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct.
Question 83: Assertion (A): Under Article 262, laws made by Parliament may limit or exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in matters relating to inter-State river water disputes. Reason (R): This provision was enacted to provide a special mechanism for the settlement of inter-State river water disputes.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to make special provisions for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes and, where necessary, to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. This provision was specifically enacted to provide a special mechanism for resolving such disputes. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 84: Assertion (A): Article 254 establishes the supremacy of Central law over State law in the event of inconsistency on matters in the Concurrent List. Reason (R): In the event of inconsistency, the State law becomes inoperative only to the extent of its inconsistency with the Central law.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 254 gives precedence to Central law in case of conflict between Central and State laws on matters in the Concurrent List. In such cases, the State law is not entirely void but becomes inoperative only to the extent of its inconsistency. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 85: Assertion (A): Article 293 regulates the borrowing powers of the States. Reason (R): The Union may impose conditions on loans granted to the States.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 293 regulates the borrowing powers of the States, and the Union may impose conditions on such borrowing, thereby ensuring fiscal discipline.
Question 86: Assertion (A): Article 280 makes the recommendations of the Finance Commission constitutionally binding. Reason (R): The Finance Commission is the principal institutional authority governing Union-State financial relations.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 280 provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission, but its recommendations are not constitutionally binding. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Finance Commission is the principal institutional body governing Union-State financial relations; hence, the Reason is correct.
Question 87: Assertion (A): Article 275 empowers the Union to provide special grants to the States. Reason (R): These grants are provided only during emergency situations.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 275 empowers the Union Government to provide special grants to the States. These grants may be given particularly for the development of Scheduled Tribe areas and other specified purposes. They are not confined only to emergency situations. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, whereas the Reason is incorrect.
Question 88: Assertion (A): Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may, by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the national interest, empower Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List. Reason (R): This procedure is based on the concept of national interest.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution, supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 89: Assertion (A): Under Article 263, the establishment of an Inter-State Council depends upon the discretion of the President. Reason (R): This institution facilitates federal coordination and the resolution of disputes among States.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The establishment of an Inter-State Council is not mandatory; the President may constitute it if considered necessary. It facilitates federal coordination and dispute resolution among States. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, but the Reason does not explain why its establishment depends upon the President's discretion.
Question 90: Assertion (A): Article 262 empowers Parliament to establish tribunals for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Reason (R): Under this provision, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is completely abolished.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to enact laws and establish tribunals for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. However, Parliament may, by law, limit or exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in such disputes. Therefore, it would be incorrect to state that the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is "completely" abolished.
Question 91: Assertion (A): Article 260 empowers the Government of India to undertake administrative functions in foreign territories. Reason (R): This provision forms part of international administrative cooperation rather than the internal federal framework.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 260 authorises the Government of India to undertake executive, legislative, or judicial functions in relation to any foreign territory, subject to an agreement with the Government of that territory. Since this provision concerns India's administrative arrangements with foreign territories and not Centre-State relations within India, the Reason correctly explains the nature of the provision. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Question 92: Assertion (A): Article 258A permits a State Government to entrust functions relating to its executive powers to the Union Government. Reason (R): This provision promotes administrative cooperation and cooperative federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 258A is a genuine constitutional provision inserted by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment (1956). Under this Article, a State may, with the consent of the Union, entrust its executive functions to the Union. It is an important example of cooperative federalism.
Question 93: Assertion (A): Under Article 257, the Union Government may issue directions to the States in certain matters to ensure that the executive power of a State does not impede the exercise of the executive power of the Union. Reason (R): This power may be exercised particularly in matters relating to means of communication of national or military importance and the protection of railways.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 257 permits the Union to issue directions to the States under certain circumstances to ensure that the executive power of the States is exercised in harmony with the executive power of the Union. This includes matters relating to means of communication of national or military importance and the protection of railways. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 94: Assertion (A): Under Article 256, the Union Government may issue directions to the States to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. Reason (R): This provision empowers the Union to completely eliminate the administrative autonomy of the States.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 256 obligates the States to ensure compliance with Union laws, and the Union may issue directions for this purpose. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, it does not abolish the administrative autonomy of the States; rather, it establishes limited Union control. Hence, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 95: Assertion (A): In Indian federalism, the Union possesses limited but significant constitutional powers to intervene in matters falling within the State List. Reason (R): Such powers arise under constitutional provisions relating to national interest, emergencies, consent of States, and other exceptional situations.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Although the State List ordinarily falls within the exclusive legislative domain of the States, the Constitution permits Union intervention in specified circumstances, such as national interest (Article 249), emergency (Article 250), consent of States (Article 252), and certain administrative and constitutional situations. Therefore, both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
Question 96: Assertion (A): Article 257A (now repealed) dealt with the deployment of Union armed forces in States for maintaining law and order. Reason (R): This Article was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 257A dealt with the deployment of Union armed forces in States. It was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment and was later omitted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment. Both statements are correct; however, the reason does not explain the assertion.
Question 97: Assertion (A): Under Article 263, the President may establish an Inter-State Council whenever considered necessary. Reason (R): The Constitution mandates the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under Article 263, the President may establish an Inter-State Council whenever considered necessary. Its establishment is not mandatory. Therefore, the assertion is correct, while the reason is incorrect.
Question 98: Assertion (A): Article 131 applies only to disputes between the Union and the States. Reason (R): It relates to the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 131 is not confined only to disputes between the Union and the States; it also applies to other federal disputes. Therefore, the assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because Article 131 relates to the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Question 99: Assertion (A): Article 293 permits States to borrow within the territory of India and, in certain circumstances, from the Union Government. Reason (R): Where a State is indebted to the Union, the Union Government may impose conditions while granting consent for further borrowing by the State.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 293 primarily deals with the borrowing powers of States. A State may borrow within India, subject to constitutional limitations. If a State is indebted to the Union, it must obtain the consent of the Government of India for certain borrowings, and such consent may be granted subject to conditions. Both statements are correct; however, the reason does not explain the borrowing power itself. Hence, B is the correct answer.
Question 100: Assertion (A): Article 280 provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission, which makes recommendations regarding the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States. Reason (R): The recommendations of the Finance Commission are legally binding.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 280 provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission, which makes recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes and grants-in-aid. Its recommendations are not legally binding. Therefore, the assertion is correct, while the reason is incorrect.
Question 101: Assertion (A): Article 275 empowers the Union to provide grants-in-aid to States. Reason (R): Such grants can be provided only in situations of financial crisis.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under Article 275, the Union may provide grants-in-aid to States for various purposes, particularly for the development of Scheduled Tribal Areas. Such grants are not confined solely to situations of financial crisis. Therefore, the assertion is correct, while the reason is incorrect.
Question 102: Assertion (A): Article 268A dealt with the levy of Service Tax and the distribution of its proceeds between the Union and the States. Reason (R): Article 268A was omitted by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 following the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 268A dealt with Service Tax and the distribution of its proceeds between the Union and the States. With the introduction of GST through the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, Article 268A was omitted. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not explain the assertion; it merely states a subsequent constitutional development.
Question 103: Assertion (A): Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List during a National Emergency. Reason (R): During an Emergency, the legislative balance between the Union and the States is temporarily altered.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List during a National Emergency. This temporarily makes the federal structure more unitary in character. Therefore, both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Question 104: Assertion (A): The Inter-State Council established under Article 263 primarily performs advisory and coordinative functions. Reason (R): The Inter-State Council is a mandatory constitutional body that the President is required to establish in every case.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Inter-State Council primarily functions as an advisory and coordinating body. Its establishment is discretionary, and the President may constitute it whenever deemed necessary; it is not a mandatory constitutional body. Therefore, the assertion is correct, while the reason is incorrect.
Question 105: Assertion (A): Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Reason (R): Parliament may by law exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to enact laws for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Article 262(2) further authorizes Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts regarding such disputes. Both statements are correct; however, the reason does not explain why Parliament is empowered to adjudicate such disputes. Hence, B is the correct answer.
Question 106: Assertion (A): Under Article 260, the Government of India may undertake administrative, legislative, or judicial functions relating to a foreign territory based on an agreement with the government of that territory. Reason (R): This provision enables India to establish administrative cooperation with foreign territories.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 260 authorizes the Government of India to undertake administrative, legislative, or judicial functions in relation to a foreign territory based on an agreement with the government of that territory. This makes it possible to establish administrative cooperation with foreign territories. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are correct, but the reason does not provide the direct constitutional explanation of the assertion; rather, it highlights a broader consequence. Hence, the correct answer is B.
Question 107: Assertion (A): Article 258A provides a constitutional mechanism for a State Government to undertake functions of the Union. Reason (R): This provision promotes administrative flexibility and cooperative federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 258A enables the Governor of a State, with the consent of the Government of India, to entrust functions relating to matters within the State's executive power to the Union Government. The provision reflects administrative flexibility and cooperative federalism. Therefore, both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
Question 108: Assertion (A): Under Article 257, the Union Government may issue directions to States in matters where the exercise of the State's executive power may impede the exercise of the Union's executive power. Reason (R): This power grants the Union general administrative control over all subjects in the State List.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 257 empowers the Union to issue directions to States only in limited circumstances to ensure that the exercise of the Union's executive power is not impeded. It does not grant the Union general administrative control over all subjects in the State List. Therefore, the assertion is correct, while the reason is incorrect.
Question 109: Assertion (A): Under Article 256, the Union Government may issue directions to a State to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. Reason (R): This power has been conferred to ensure legislative supremacy within the federal framework.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 256 obligates States to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament and empowers the Union to issue necessary directions. This arrangement is intended to make Parliament’s legislative supremacy effective within the federal framework. Therefore, both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Question 110: Assertion (A): Inter-State river water disputes are adjudicated only by the Supreme Court. Reason (R): The Constitution permits Parliament to establish a special adjudicatory mechanism for such disputes.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Under Article 262, Parliament may provide for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes through special tribunals and may exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in such matters. Therefore, inter-State river water disputes are not adjudicated only by the Supreme Court. Hence, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct.
Question 111: Assertion (A): Under Article 257, the executive power of a State shall be exercised in a manner that does not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. Reason (R): This provision weakens cooperative federalism.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 257 provides that the executive power of a State shall be exercised in a manner that does not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. For this purpose, the Union may issue directions to the States in specified circumstances. This provision is intended to ensure coordination within the federal framework and does not weaken cooperative federalism. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, while the Reason is incorrect.
Question 112: Assertion (A): Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. Reason (R): They were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are not constitutional bodies; they were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct.
Question 113: Assertion (A): According to Article 254, in the event of a conflict between a State law and a Parliamentary law on a matter in the Concurrent List, the Parliamentary law generally prevails. Reason (R): This reflects the principle of legislative supremacy of the Union in matters under the Concurrent List.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 254 deals with repugnancy between Parliamentary and State laws on matters enumerated in the Concurrent List. In case of inconsistency, the Parliamentary law generally prevails over the State law. However, under Article 254(2), a State law that has received Presidential assent may prevail within that State, subject to Parliament's power to override it later. Therefore, both statements are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 114: Assertion (A): Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes and makes financial recommendations. Reason (R): The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on Parliament.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes and makes financial recommendations; therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, its recommendations are not binding on Parliament. Hence, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 115: Assertion (A): Under Article 275, grants-in-aid may be provided by the Union to the States. Reason (R): These grants are intended to reduce financial disparities.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 275, the Union Government provides grants-in-aid to the States, particularly for the development of Scheduled Areas and financially weaker States. These grants are intended to reduce financial imbalances. Therefore, both statements are correct.
Question 116: Assertion (A): Under Article 269, certain taxes are levied and collected by the Union, but the proceeds are assigned to the States. Reason (R): This arrangement was designed to limit the financial autonomy of the States.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Under Article 269, certain taxes are levied and collected by the Union, but their proceeds are assigned to the States. This arrangement is intended to strengthen fiscal federalism and provide revenue to the States, not to restrict their financial autonomy. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, whereas the Reason is incorrect.
Question 117: Assertion (A): Under Article 268, certain duties are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States. Reason (R): This arrangement combines legislative uniformity with administrative convenience.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 268 provides that certain duties are levied by the Union while their collection and appropriation are entrusted to the States. This ensures uniformity in taxation through central legislation while utilizing State administrative machinery for efficient collection. Therefore, both statements are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 118: Assertion (A): Under Article 250, during a National Emergency, Parliament may legislate on subjects in the State List. Reason (R): During an Emergency, the Constitution assumes a more unitary character than a federal one.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 250, Parliament acquires the power to legislate on subjects in the State List during a National Emergency. This arrangement gives the Constitution a more unitary character during such periods. Therefore, both statements are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 119: Assertion (A): Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council is established by the President. Reason (R): Its objective is to promote coordination between the Union and the States.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council; therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because the Council aims to promote coordination between the Union and the States. However, the Reason does not directly explain the Assertion.
Question 120: Assertion (A): Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide by law for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys. Reason (R): Parliament may, by law, exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide by law for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers and river valleys. It also authorizes Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes. Both statements are correct; however, the power to exclude court jurisdiction does not directly explain the power to provide for adjudication. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 121: Assertion (A): Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to authorize Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List if it declares by resolution that it is necessary in the national interest. Reason (R): Such a resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List subject when the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution that it is necessary in the national interest. Such a resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. Both statements are correct; however, the Reason states the procedural requirement for passing the resolution and does not directly explain why Parliament is empowered to legislate on the State List in the national interest. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Question 122: Assertion (A): Under Article 258, the President may entrust Union functions to a State Government with its consent. Reason (R): This promotes administrative decentralization and cooperative federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 258 empowers the President to entrust Union functions to a State Government with the consent of the State. This arrangement strengthens cooperative federalism; therefore, both statements are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 123: Assertion (A): Under Article 257, the Union Government may issue directions to the States in certain specified matters to ensure that the exercise of the Union's executive power is not impeded. Reason (R): This power applies without any limitation to all subjects in the State List.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Under Article 257, the executive power of a State must be exercised in a manner that does not impede the exercise of the executive power of the Union. For this purpose, the Union may issue directions to the States in certain specified matters. However, this power is not unlimited and does not confer general administrative control over all subjects in the State List. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, whereas the Reason is incorrect.
Question 124: Assertion (A): Under Article 256, it is the constitutional obligation of the States to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament. Reason (R): The Union Government has the power to issue directions to the States to ensure the effective implementation of Union laws.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 256 clearly provides that it is the duty of the State Governments to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament, and the Union Government may issue necessary directions for this purpose. This provision establishes the principle of Union supremacy; therefore, both statements are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 125: Assertion (A): Under Article 250, Parliament is empowered to legislate on matters in the State List during a National Emergency. Reason (R): During a National Emergency, the Indian federal system assumes a more unitary character.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List during a National Emergency. This is possible because, during an Emergency, the Indian federal system assumes a comparatively more unitary character, resulting in an expansion of the powers of the Union. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason appropriately explains the Assertion.
Question 126: Assertion (A): Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council may be assigned advisory functions and functions relating to the investigation and discussion of inter-State disputes. Reason (R): The Inter-State Council provides an institutional framework for Union-State and inter-State cooperation.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council and assign it functions such as investigating and discussing inter-State disputes, coordinating policy matters of common interest, and making recommendations for better coordination. These functions facilitate cooperation between the Union and the States as well as among States. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason appropriately explains the Assertion.
Question 127: Assertion (A): Zonal Councils were established under Part IX of the Constitution. Reason (R): Their objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among the States.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Zonal Councils were not established under Part IX of the Constitution; they were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. However, the Reason is correct because their primary objective is to promote cooperation and coordination among the States.
Question 128: Assertion (A): Under Article 257, the Union Government may issue directions to State Governments regarding general Public Order. Reason (R): Article 258 permits the President to entrust certain executive functions of the Union to the States.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Public Order is a subject in the State List. Under Article 257, the Union does not have the power to issue directions to the States regarding general Public Order. Instead, it may issue directions only in limited matters such as means of communication and roads of national or military importance. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. Article 258 indeed permits the President to entrust certain executive functions of the Union to the States; hence, the Reason is correct.
Question 129: Assertion (A): Article 262 empowers Parliament to make provisions for the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes. Reason (R): This provision may completely exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 262(1) empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. Article 262(2) further authorizes Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in such matters. Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. However, the Reason states an additional constitutional consequence of Article 262 rather than explaining why Parliament is empowered to adjudicate such disputes.
Question 130: Assertion (A): Under Article 268, certain taxes are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States. Reason (R): Under this arrangement, the revenue so collected accrues to the respective States, thereby strengthening fiscal federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 268, certain duties and taxes (such as specified stamp duties) are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States. The revenue collected under this arrangement belongs to the respective States, thereby reinforcing fiscal federalism. Hence, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 131: Assertion (A): Under Article 280, the Finance Commission makes recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes and grants-in-aid between the Union and the States and also regulates administrative relations between them. Reason (R): The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 280 provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, grants-in-aid, and other matters relating to fiscal federalism. However, it does not regulate administrative relations between the Union and the States. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is correct because the Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years or earlier if necessary.
Question 132: Assertion (A): Under Article 249, Parliament may legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. Reason (R): This power is available only during a Proclamation of Emergency declared by the President.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under Article 249, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. This power is independent of a National Emergency. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, whereas the Reason is incorrect.
Question 133: Assertion (A): An Inter-State Council may be established under Article 263. Reason (R): The division of the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List is provided in Part XI of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council; therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because the constitutional distribution of legislative subjects through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists is contained in Part XI. However, this is not a direct explanation of the Assertion but merely states a general constitutional fact. Hence, both are correct, but the Reason does not explain the Assertion.
Question 134: Assertion (A): Under Article 256, State Governments are bound to ensure compliance with laws made by the Union. Reason (R): The executive power of the Union extends to giving necessary directions to the States to ensure compliance with the Constitution and laws made by Parliament.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 256, the executive power of every State shall be exercised in such a manner as to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament, and the Union Government is empowered to issue necessary directions for this purpose. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason provides the constitutional explanation for the Assertion. This provision strengthens the principle of federal supremacy embodied in Part XI of the Constitution.