Practice UPSC Polity MCQs on Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSP with detailed explanations. Includes important Prelims questions, PYQs, constitutional concepts and exam-oriented practice for UPSC preparation.
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Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties & DPSP MCQ for UPSC Prelims | Polity Practice Questions & PYQs
Description
Practice UPSC Polity MCQs on Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and DPSP with detailed explanations. Includes important Prelims questions, PYQs, constitutional concepts and exam-oriented practice for UPSC preparation.
Difficulty
Hard
Num Questions
175
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
120 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Rights protect the dignity of the individual. (2) Directive Principles provide direction towards a socio-economic justice-based order. (3) Fundamental Duties cultivate a sense of constitutional responsibility among citizens. (4) An integrated study of all three is essential for understanding the foundational philosophy of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
The philosophical framework of the Indian Constitution is based on the coordination of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties. Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty, equality, and dignity; Directive Principles guide the establishment of social and economic democracy; while Fundamental Duties make citizens responsible towards the Constitution, the nation, and society. The Supreme Court has also, from time to time, recognized all three as complementary to one another.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Indian Constitution embodies the concept of balance between rights and duties. (2) Fundamental Duties were not introduced to abolish civil liberties. (3) In a democratic system, responsibilities are considered as important as rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution grants citizens extensive Fundamental Rights while also providing for Fundamental Duties to encourage responsible citizenship. The purpose of Fundamental Duties is not to curtail rights but to strengthen democratic culture, constitutional values, and national responsibility. This reflects a balanced constitutional philosophy of rights and obligations.
Question 3: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. (2) An additional Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment. (3) At present, the Constitution contains 11 Fundamental Duties.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the original ten Fundamental Duties. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. Consequently, the Constitution currently contains a total of 11 Fundamental Duties.
Question 4: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 44 relates to the Uniform Civil Code. (2) Article 44 is classified among the Liberal-Intellectual Directive Principles. (3) Its objective is to promote a uniform civil legal system for all citizens of the country.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 44 directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout the territory of India. It is included among the Liberal-Intellectual Directive Principles. Its objective is to work towards a uniform legal framework in civil matters for all citizens.
Question 5: Which of the following judgments clarified that “arbitrariness is antithetical to equality”?
Correct Answer:
A
— E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court held that equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies. If a State action is arbitrary, it may be considered violative of Article 14. This judgment laid the foundation for the modern and dynamic interpretation of the Right to Equality.
Question 6: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 39A is closely linked with the judicial interpretation of Article 21. (2) Free legal aid has been regarded as an essential component of a fair procedure. (3) This development is an example of the coordination between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 39A is a Directive Principle relating to equal justice and free legal aid. The Supreme Court read it together with Article 21 and held that legal aid is essential for a just, fair, and reasonable procedure. Thus, a non-justiciable Directive Principle was linked through judicial interpretation with the effective enforcement of Fundamental Rights, providing an excellent example of the coordination between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 7: Which of the following statements most appropriately describes the constitutional status of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— They are constitutional obligations of citizens and may be used in judicial and legislative interpretation.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties cannot be directly enforced by courts, but they play an important role in constitutional governance, legislative policy, and judicial interpretation. Courts have referred to them in matters concerning environmental protection, national honour, education, and civic responsibility. Therefore, it would be incorrect to regard them as mere moral exhortations.
Question 8: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Both Article 32 and Article 226 relate to writ jurisdiction. (2) The jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32. (3) High Courts can issue writs only in cases involving the violation of Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation:
High Courts can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for the protection of other legal rights. Therefore, Statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 9: In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court hold that the “limited power of constitutional amendment” forms part of the Basic Structure?
Correct Answer:
A
— Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge Bench held that while Parliament possesses broad powers to amend the Constitution, such power is not unlimited. The Basic Structure of the Constitution cannot be destroyed or altered. Thus, the concept of limited amending power itself became an element of the Basic Structure.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court has not prescribed any fixed and exhaustive list of elements constituting the Basic Structure Doctrine. (2) In different constitutional cases, the Supreme Court has recognized additional features as components of the Basic Structure. (3) The balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles has also been considered part of the Basic Structure.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Since Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court has consistently maintained that there is no closed or exhaustive list of Basic Structure elements. Through subsequent decisions such as Minerva Mills, S.R. Bommai, L. Chandra Kumar, and I.R. Coelho, the Court has recognized additional features including democracy, federalism, secularism, judicial review, the rule of law, independence of the judiciary, and the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as parts of the Basic Structure. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 11: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The coordination of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution seeks to balance the interests of both the individual and society. (2) The Supreme Court has, over time, recognized the complementary nature of these three components.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both are correct
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution is neither based solely on individual liberty nor exclusively on social welfare; rather, it seeks to establish a balance between the two. Fundamental Rights protect individual dignity, Directive Principles promote socio-economic justice, and Fundamental Duties encourage responsible citizenship. Through numerous judgments, the judiciary has recognized the complementary nature of these three components, thereby advancing the overall objectives of the Constitution.
Question 12: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 17 abolishes untouchability. (2) Violation of Article 17 is a punishable offence. (3) The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to give effect to this Article.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form. To enforce this constitutional mandate, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted. This provision represents the constitutional commitment to social equality within the framework of Fundamental Rights.
Question 13: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is sometimes referred to as the “Mini Constitution.” (2) Fundamental Duties were added through this amendment. (3) Article 48A was also inserted through this amendment.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, was one of the most comprehensive amendments in Indian constitutional history and is therefore often called the “Mini Constitution.” It inserted Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) and Article 48A (Environmental Protection). Several other changes affecting the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles were also introduced through this amendment.
Question 14: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 44 relates to the organization of Village Panchayats.
Explanation:
Article 44 relates to the Uniform Civil Code. The organization of Village Panchayats is provided under Article 40. The remaining three pairs are correctly matched.
Question 15: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Articles 29 and 30 both relate to Cultural and Educational Rights. (2) Article 29(1) is available only to minorities. (3) Article 30 specifically protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Article 29(1) grants any section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same; it is not confined only to minorities. Article 30, on the other hand, specifically grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions. Therefore, Statement (2) is incorrect.
Question 16: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding Articles 25 and 26?
Correct Answer:
B
— Article 25 relates to individual religious freedom, while Article 26 relates to the rights of religious denominations.
Explanation:
Article 25 guarantees to every person freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion. Article 26 grants religious denominations the right to manage religious affairs and institutions. Both provisions are subject to public order, morality, and health.
Question 17: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The concept of “Constitutional Morality” has been used by the judiciary in interpreting Fundamental Rights. (2) Constitutional Morality aims only to limit the powers of the State. (3) This concept is concerned with protecting the core values of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has invoked the concept of Constitutional Morality in several cases, particularly while giving a progressive interpretation to Fundamental Rights. Its objective is not merely to limit State power but also to protect constitutional values such as liberty, equality, dignity, and justice. Therefore, Statement (2) is incorrect.
Question 18: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 14 also provides protection against arbitrary State action. (2) The Right to Equality requires equal treatment only among persons similarly situated. (3) Reasonable classification is permissible under Article 14.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 14 is not confined to formal equality alone but also protects against arbitrariness. In cases such as E.P. Royappa and Maneka Gandhi, the Supreme Court held that arbitrariness is antithetical to equality. Furthermore, equal treatment of similarly situated persons and the doctrine of reasonable classification are well-established aspects of the constitutional interpretation of Article 14.
Question 19: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court most explicitly reaffirm that Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Explanation:
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court reaffirmed that Judicial Review and limited amending power are essential features of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. The Court struck down portions of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment that attempted to place Parliament's amending power beyond effective constitutional limitations. The judgment remains a landmark authority on the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Question 20: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court has considered Judicial Review to be a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (2) Judicial Review is based only on Article 32. (3) Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, and 227 together form the constitutional foundation of Judicial Review.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Judicial Review is an important element of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. Its foundation lies not only in Article 32 but also in Articles 13, 32, 136, 226, 227, and other constitutional provisions. In cases such as Kesavananda Bharati, Minerva Mills, and L. Chandra Kumar, the judiciary clearly emphasized its constitutional significance. Therefore, Statement (2) is incorrect, while Statements (1) and (3) are correct.
Question 21: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The objective of the Indian Constitution is not merely to establish political democracy. (2) Directive Principles provide direction for establishing social and economic democracy. (3) Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties together constitute a three-tier structure of constitutional governance.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution seeks to establish not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy. Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty and dignity, Directive Principles guide the establishment of a welfare state, and Fundamental Duties make citizens aware of their constitutional responsibilities. Together, they form a balanced constitutional framework.
Question 22: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties are primarily meant for citizens. (2) Like most Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are also citizen-centric constitutional concepts. (3) All Fundamental Duties are enforceable only against the State.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties primarily apply to Indian citizens and define their constitutional responsibilities. They are not enforceable rights against the State but moral and constitutional obligations of citizens. Therefore, Statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 23: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court make a significant interpretation linking the Right to Education with Article 21, which later evolved into Article 21A?
Correct Answer:
B
— Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
In Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993), the Supreme Court made a significant interpretation linking education with the Right to Life under Article 21. This constitutional development later paved the way for the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 and the insertion of Article 21A providing the Fundamental Right to free and compulsory education.
Question 24: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 21, Article 48A, and Article 51A[g] are all important components of the constitutional framework relating to environmental protection. (2) The Supreme Court has developed environmental rights through the combined use of these provisions.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Indian environmental jurisprudence has largely evolved on the combined foundation of Article 21 (Right to Life), Article 48A (State’s duty to protect the environment), and Article 51A(g) (citizens’ duty to protect the environment). In numerous judgments, the Supreme Court has held that a clean environment is an integral part of the Right to Life.
Question 25: Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the constitutional principle of “Harmonious Construction”?
Correct Answer:
A
— Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles should be interpreted in a manner that gives maximum effect to both.
Explanation:
Over time, the Indian judiciary developed the view that different constitutional provisions should be interpreted harmoniously rather than as conflicting with one another. Both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles serve the core objectives of the Constitution. Minerva Mills and other judgments emphasized this principle.
Question 26: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 51A[j] prescribes the duty to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity. (2) This Fundamental Duty encourages citizens to contribute actively to nation-building.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Article 51A(j) makes it the duty of every citizen to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of achievement and endeavour. This duty reflects not merely a prohibitory obligation but also a positive spirit of national development.
Question 27: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (1) Golaknath Case — Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights (2) Kesavananda Bharati Case — Basic Structure Doctrine (3) Minerva Mills Case — Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In Golaknath (1967), the Court adopted the view that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded. In Minerva Mills (1980), the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles was held to be part of the Basic Structure. These three decisions profoundly influenced the development of Indian constitutional law.
Question 28: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 has been considered related to the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (2) Parliament can abolish Article 32 through an ordinary law.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 is correct
Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution. Judicial review and the availability of constitutional remedies have been regarded as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Therefore, Parliament cannot abolish Article 32 through ordinary legislation.
Question 29: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court declare the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21?
Correct Answer:
A
— K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Explanation:
In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Constitution Bench unanimously held that the right to privacy is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. This judgment is of historic significance in the development of Fundamental Rights jurisprudence in India and strengthens constitutional protection of civil liberties in the digital age.
Question 30: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The judgment in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu [2007] declared that all laws included in the Ninth Schedule are completely immune from judicial review. (2) Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to judicial review if they violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2 is correct
Explanation:
In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are not completely immune from judicial review. Any law inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) can be tested on the touchstone of the Basic Structure Doctrine. Therefore, Statement (1) is incorrect and Statement (2) is correct.
Question 31: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty. (2) Directive Principles provide a constitutional programme for social and economic transformation. (3) Fundamental Duties make citizens responsible towards constitutional values.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Parts III, IV, and IVA of the Indian Constitution together provide a balanced framework of rights, duties, and policy direction for the State. Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty and dignity, Directive Principles aim at establishing a social and economic justice-based order, while Fundamental Duties promote constitutional discipline, national unity, and public responsibility among citizens.
Question 32: Which of the following statements most closely reflects the judicial approach of the Supreme Court?
Correct Answer:
D
— Harmonious construction and balanced interpretation of both are necessary.
Explanation:
The Supreme Court, particularly in Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills, clarified that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are not antagonistic but complementary. The Constitution should be interpreted in a manner that gives maximum effect to both. This is the constitutional principle of “harmonious construction.”
Question 33: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The issue of conflict between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution particularly emerged in the context of land reform laws. (2) The First Constitutional Amendment and several subsequent amendments were influenced by this controversy.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both are correct
Explanation:
After Independence, attempts to implement land reform laws led to conflicts between the Right to Property and Directive Principles. The First Constitutional Amendment, Articles 31A and 31B, the Ninth Schedule, and several subsequent constitutional amendments evolved in this context. This background is crucial for understanding the constitutional history of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 34: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 48A and Article 51A(g) both relate to environmental protection. (2) The former is a duty of the State, whereas the latter is a duty of citizens. (3) Both provisions have been used in the development of environmental jurisprudence.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment, forests, and wildlife, while Article 51A(g) imposes a duty upon citizens to protect and improve the natural environment. The Supreme Court has relied on both provisions, along with Article 21, in numerous environmental cases to develop environmental rights. This is an excellent example of the interaction between Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties.
Question 35: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Fundamental Duties were added on the basis of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Explanation:
The Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976, recommended the inclusion of certain duties of citizens in the Constitution. Based on these recommendations, Fundamental Duties were inserted into Part IVA through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Although not all recommendations of the Committee were accepted, the inclusion of Fundamental Duties is regarded as its major contribution.
Question 36: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The term “life” under Article 21 does not mean mere physical existence. (2) The interpretation of Article 21 expanded after the Maneka Gandhi judgment. (3) The right to a clean environment has been linked with Article 21.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
After the Maneka Gandhi judgment (1978), the interpretation of Article 21 became extremely broad. The Supreme Court included within the Right to Life dignity, a clean environment, health, education (to a limited extent before Article 21A), legal aid, privacy, and several other rights. Thus, Article 21 has become the most dynamic provision among the Fundamental Rights.
Question 37: Which of the following writs is issued when a person unlawfully occupies a public office?
Correct Answer:
B
— Quo Warranto
Explanation:
The purpose of the writ of Quo Warranto is to inquire into the legal authority under which a person holds a public office. If the claim is not legally valid, the court may order the person’s removal from that office. This writ is an important mechanism for ensuring legality and transparency in public offices.
Question 38: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) At present, Article 31C protects only those laws that are enacted to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39[b] and Article 39[c]. (2) After the Minerva Mills judgment, all Directive Principles enjoy protection under Article 31C.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 is correct
Explanation:
Originally, Article 31C provided protection only to laws implementing Article 39(b) and Article 39(c). The 42nd Constitutional Amendment extended this protection to all Directive Principles, but this extension was declared unconstitutional in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980). Therefore, at present, Article 31C continues to protect only laws enacted to give effect to Article 39(b) and Article 39(c).
Question 39: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that “harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy” form part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Explanation:
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary elements of the Constitution, and the balance between them is a part of the basic structure. On this basis, the Court struck down certain provisions of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. This judgment is considered the most significant judicial source concerning the relationship between FRs and DPSPs.
Question 40: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati judgment. (2) The Basic Structure Doctrine is not explicitly mentioned in any Article of the Constitution. (3) Parliament can alter the basic structure of the Constitution if it amends it by a special majority.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine. This doctrine is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution; it evolved through judicial interpretation. The Court clarified that Parliament may amend the Constitution, but it cannot destroy or alter its basic structure. Therefore, Statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 41: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Rights help establish political democracy. (2) Directive Principles aim at establishing social and economic democracy. (3) The balance between the two has been regarded as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty and political democracy, whereas Directive Principles seek to establish a social and economic order based on justice. The Supreme Court, particularly in the Minerva Mills judgment, regarded the balance between the two as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. This balance makes the Indian Constitution distinctive as both a liberal democratic and a welfare-oriented constitutional framework.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) One can directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32. (2) Article 32 has been regarded as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (3) Parliament can completely abolish Article 32.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. In Kesavananda Bharati and subsequent decisions, the Supreme Court recognized judicial review and effective enforcement of Fundamental Rights as components of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Consequently, Parliament cannot destroy the essential core of Article 32.
Question 43: Which of the following statements regarding Article 39(d) is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— It relates to equal pay for equal work.
Explanation:
Article 39(d) directs the State to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women. It is an important Socialist Directive Principle and reflects the constitutional objective of labour justice and gender equality. The Supreme Court has accorded constitutional significance to this principle in several cases.
Question 44: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 51A[a] lays down the duty to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals. (2) Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem is also part of this duty.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both statements are correct
Explanation:
Article 51A(a) makes it the duty of every citizen to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem. It is the first duty in the list of Fundamental Duties and strengthens the spirit of constitutional nationalism.
Question 45: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are also subject to judicial review?
Correct Answer:
D
— I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) would be subject to judicial review if they violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. This decision is highly significant for the protection of Fundamental Rights and the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Question 46: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable by courts. (2) Courts may use Fundamental Duties in constitutional interpretation. (3) Fundamental Duties are completely irrelevant constitutional provisions.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties cannot be directly enforced by courts; however, they play an important role in constitutional interpretation, public interest considerations and the evaluation of legislative policies. The Supreme Court has referred to Fundamental Duties in matters relating to environmental protection, national honour and education. Therefore, Statement (3) is clearly incorrect.
Question 47: Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (1) Article 41 – Right to work, education and public assistance (2) Article 42 – Humane conditions of work and maternity relief (3) Article 43A – Promotion of cooperative societies (4) Article 43B – Promotion of cooperative societies
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 3
Explanation:
Article 43A relates to workers’ participation in the management of industries, whereas the promotion of cooperative societies is provided under Article 43B, which was inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment. The pairs relating to Articles 41 and 42 are correctly matched.
Question 48: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 38 and Article 39 both relate to the establishment of social and economic justice. (2) Article 38 lays down broad objectives, whereas Article 39 provides specific policy directions.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both statements are correct
Explanation:
Article 38 provides a broad directive to establish a social order based on justice, while Article 39 lays down specific guidelines for State policy, such as equitable distribution of resources, equal pay and prevention of economic concentration. Together, they strengthen the constitutional vision of a socialist welfare state.
Question 49: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that a Constitutional Amendment is not “law” within the meaning of Article 13?
Correct Answer:
D
— Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Explanation:
In Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951), the Supreme Court held that a Constitutional Amendment is not “law” under Article 13 and therefore Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights. This view was later changed in Golaknath, but was re-established in a modified form in Kesavananda Bharati. For UPSC, the evolution of constitutional amendment jurisprudence is extremely important.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 34 relates to a situation where Martial Law is in force in any part of India. (2) Article 34 permits Parliament to make laws granting legal protection to certain acts done in such an area. (3) Article 34 relates to the proclamation of a National Emergency.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Article 34 applies when Martial Law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers Parliament to indemnify persons for acts done in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in such areas. It is distinct from the constitutional provisions relating to National Emergency under Article 352.
Question 51: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32. (2) High Courts can issue writs under Article 226. (3) The writ jurisdiction of High Courts is not confined only to Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court and Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs. High Courts may issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for the protection of other legal and statutory rights. Therefore, their writ jurisdiction is considered broader in scope.
Question 52: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 48A was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Explanation:
Article 48A, relating to the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife, was inserted among the Directive Principles by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The same amendment also incorporated Fundamental Duties into the Constitution. This amendment is regarded as highly significant in the development of environmental constitutionalism.
Question 53: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) In the original Constitution, Article 45 related to free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years. (2) After the 86th Constitutional Amendment, the subject matter of Article 45 changed. (3) The present Article 45 relates to early childhood care and education.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In the original Constitution, Article 45 directed the State to provide free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years. After the 86th Constitutional Amendment, this objective was shifted to Article 21A, and the revised Article 45 came to relate to early childhood care and education for children below six years of age. This is an important example of constitutional evolution between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 54: Which of the following Fundamental Duties relates to protecting and preserving the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 51A(c)
Explanation:
Article 51A(c) makes it the duty of every citizen to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. It is one of the Fundamental Duties inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Question 55: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that amendment of Fundamental Rights is beyond the power of Parliament?
Correct Answer:
D
— Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Explanation:
In Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under Article 368. This position was later altered through the 24th Constitutional Amendment and the Kesavananda Bharati judgment. In Indian constitutional history, the sequence of Shankari Prasad, Sajjan Singh, Golaknath and Kesavananda Bharati is of special significance.
Question 56: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IVA of the Constitution. (2) The number of Fundamental Duties has been increased only once so far. (3) At present, there are 11 Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are provided under Article 51A in Part IVA of the Constitution. Initially, ten Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Subsequently, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted an additional duty relating to providing educational opportunities to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. Thus, the total number of Fundamental Duties became eleven. The number has been increased only once so far.
Question 57: Which of the following writs is issued to a public official for the performance of a statutory duty?
Correct Answer:
B
— Mandamus
Explanation:
The literal meaning of Mandamus is “We Command.” This writ is issued by a court to a public official, body or authority requiring the performance of a statutory duty. It is generally not issued against private individuals.
Question 58: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 39[b] relates to the equitable distribution of material resources. (2) Article 39[c] relates to preventing the concentration of wealth. (3) Both provisions fall under the category of Socialist Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are distributed so as best to subserve the common good. Article 39(c) emphasizes that the economic system should operate in a manner that prevents the concentration of wealth and means of production to the detriment of the common interest. Both are core Socialist Directive Principles and have historically been linked with Article 31C.
Question 59: In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
A
— Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be used as an aid in constitutional interpretation. Earlier, in In Re: Berubari Union (1960), the Court had observed that the Preamble was not a source of substantive power and was not regarded as an integral part of the Constitution. Kesavananda Bharati clarified the legal position.
Question 60: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 35 confers special legislative power upon Parliament regarding matters connected with certain Fundamental Rights. (2) Only Parliament can make laws relating to matters under Articles 16[3], 32[3], 33 and 34. (3) State Legislatures cannot make laws on these matters.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 35 ensures that only Parliament may legislate on matters concerning the implementation of certain Fundamental Rights. These include residence requirements for public employment [Article 16(3)], empowering courts other than the Supreme Court to issue writs [Article 32(3)], restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of members of the Armed Forces and related services [Article 33], and protection in relation to Martial Law [Article 34]. Therefore, State Legislatures cannot enact laws on these subjects.
Question 61: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 43B relates to the promotion of cooperative societies. (2) This provision is associated with the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act. (3) Its objective is to ensure the democratic and autonomous functioning of cooperative societies.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 43B was inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 (effective from 15 February 2012). It directs the State to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies. In Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021), the Supreme Court partially struck down certain provisions of the 97th Amendment relating to State cooperative societies, but Article 43B continues to remain part of the Constitution.
Question 62: Which of the following statements regarding Article 30 is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— Religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
Explanation:
Article 30 grants both religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. It is an important component of India’s pluralistic constitutional framework. Various judicial decisions have clarified the scope of this right, administrative control and institutional autonomy.
Question 63: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 38 directs the State to secure a social order in which social, economic and political justice informs all institutions of national life for the promotion of public welfare. (2) A provision relating to reducing inequalities was added to Article 38 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Article 38(1) directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order informed by social, economic and political justice. Article 38(2), inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, requires the State to strive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
Question 64: Which of the following Fundamental Duties is directly related to environmental protection?
Correct Answer:
D
— To protect and improve the natural environment
Explanation:
Article 51A(g) imposes a duty upon every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. It is one of the Fundamental Duties inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. The constitutional basis for environmental protection is found in both Article 48A (DPSP) and Article 51A(g).
Question 65: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court describe “harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles” as a constitutional objective?
Correct Answer:
A
— Kerala Education Bill Reference Case, 1958
Explanation:
In the Kerala Education Bill Reference (1958), the Supreme Court initially expressed the view that harmony, rather than conflict, should be established between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. This principle was further developed in later decisions, particularly in Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills.
Question 66: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right. (2) Under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs only in cases involving violations of Fundamental Rights. (3) The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights may be suspended in the circumstances specified by the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right. High Courts under Article 226 may issue writs not only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for other legal rights; therefore Statement (2) is incorrect. Under Article 359, during a National Emergency, the President may suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights. Hence Statement (3) is correct.
Question 67: Which of the following Articles presents the constitutional provision of equal justice and free legal aid as a bridge between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer:
C
— Article 39A
Explanation:
Article 39A directs the State to provide equal justice and free legal aid. Subsequent judicial decisions read it together with Article 21, resulting in legal aid being recognized as an essential component of a fair procedure. It is an excellent example of practical harmony between Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights.
Question 68: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 33 empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of members of the Armed Forces, Forces charged with the maintenance of public order, intelligence organizations and persons employed in connection with them. (2) This power is also available to State Legislatures.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 is correct
Explanation:
Article 33 empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of members of the Armed Forces, Forces charged with the maintenance of public order, intelligence agencies and related personnel to ensure proper discharge of duties and maintenance of discipline. This power is vested exclusively in Parliament and not in State Legislatures.
Question 69: In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court significantly expand the scope of Article 21 by adopting a broad and liberal interpretation?
Correct Answer:
D
— Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation:
In the landmark judgment of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court gave a broad interpretation to the phrase “procedure established by law” under Article 21 and held that such procedure must be just, fair and reasonable, and not arbitrary, oppressive or unjust. The judgment established the interrelationship between Articles 14, 19 and 21 and significantly expanded the scope of Article 21. Thereafter, rights such as the right to live with dignity, legal aid, a clean environment, privacy, speedy justice and several other rights were recognized under Article 21.
Question 70: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 31C originally provided protection only to laws implementing Article 39[b] and Article 39[c]. (2) By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, Article 31C was extended to cover laws implementing all Directive Principles of State Policy. (3) In Minerva Mills v. Union of India [1980], the Supreme Court declared this extended portion of Article 31C unconstitutional.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 31C, inserted by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, initially protected laws implementing Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) from challenges under Articles 14 and 19. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 extended this protection to all Directive Principles of State Policy. However, in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court held this extension to be unconstitutional as it violated the Basic Structure of the Constitution. This judgment is regarded as an important foundation for maintaining the constitutional balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 71: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is considered part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. (2) The Minerva Mills judgment strengthened this principle. (3) The Constitution gives importance only to Fundamental Rights and not to Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court clarified that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are essential components of the Constitution’s balanced framework, and harmony between them forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Therefore, statements (1) and (2) are correct. Statement (3) is incorrect because the Constitution accords importance to both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in achieving social, economic, and political justice. This judgment remains a key judicial foundation for the principle of balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 72: Which Fundamental Duty relates to developing scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 51A(h)
Explanation:
Article 51A(h) makes it the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. This provision reflects the constitutional expectation of building a modern, progressive, and rational society.
Question 73: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Article 48 — Organization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry (2) Article 48A — Protection and Improvement of Environment and Safeguarding of Forests and Wildlife (3) Article 49 — Protection of Monuments, Places and Objects of National Importance
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 48 directs the State to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and to preserve and improve breeds of cattle and other milch and draught animals. Article 48A deals with protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife. Article 49 concerns the protection of monuments, places, and objects of national importance. Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.
Question 74: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court apply the “Basic Structure Doctrine” to Parliament’s amending power?
Correct Answer:
D
— Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge Bench held that Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its Basic Structure. This judgment is of immense significance for understanding Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and constitutional balance.
Question 75: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 47 directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and improve public health. (2) Article 47 also deals with controlling the consumption of intoxicating drinks.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both statements are correct
Explanation:
Article 47 forms part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and directs the State to raise the level of nutrition, improve public health, and prohibit or limit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health. It is an important provision associated with the concept of a socialist welfare state.
Question 76: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— The inspiration for Fundamental Duties was derived from the Constitution of the Soviet Union.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, and were inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union (USSR). They were not part of the original Constitution. They are not directly enforceable by courts, though they play an important role in constitutional interpretation.
Question 77: Which of the following Directive Principles falls under Gandhian Principles?
Correct Answer:
D
— Promotion of Cottage Industries
Explanation:
Article 43 advocates the promotion of cottage industries in rural areas on an individual or cooperative basis. This is inspired by Gandhian economic philosophy. The Uniform Civil Code is associated with Liberal-Intellectual Principles, while environmental protection is linked with modern constitutional objectives.
Question 78: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. (2) Under Article 226, High Courts can also issue writs. (3) The jurisdiction under Article 226 is wider than that under Article 32.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for the enforcement of other legal rights. Therefore, the jurisdiction under Article 226 is wider than that under Article 32.
Question 79: Which of the following Articles relates to equal justice and free legal aid?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 39A
Explanation:
Article 39A directs the State to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any person by reason of economic or other disabilities. For this purpose, the provision of free legal aid has been made. Institutions such as the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) further this constitutional philosophy. This provision was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Question 80: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 29[1] grants any section of citizens the right to conserve its language, script, and culture. (2) Article 29 applies only to religious minorities.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 is correct
Explanation:
Article 29(1) grants any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same. It is not limited only to minorities. On the other hand, Article 30 specifically grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
Question 81: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Rights can impose both negative and positive obligations. (2) Directive Principles provide fundamental constitutional guidance for governance. (3) Numerous welfare laws have been enacted based on Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In many situations, Fundamental Rights impose both negative obligations on the State (non-interference) and positive obligations. Directive Principles are not enforceable by courts, but they provide fundamental guidance for governance. Numerous laws relating to land reforms, legal aid, environmental protection, Panchayati Raj, and education have been enacted inspired by the DPSPs.
Question 82: Which of the following is an example of harmonization between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 21A
Explanation:
Through Article 21A, the Right to Education for children aged 6 to 14 years was made a Fundamental Right. Earlier, it existed as a Directive Principle under Article 45. Thus, Article 21A is an excellent example of harmonization and constitutional evolution between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Question 83: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable by courts. (2) Parliament may enact laws to give effect to Fundamental Duties.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced by courts. However, Parliament may enact laws to give effect to them. Examples include the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 and provisions relating to environmental protection. The Supreme Court has also relied upon Fundamental Duties as an aid to constitutional interpretation.
Question 84: Which of the following Articles is related to the promotion of the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections?
Correct Answer:
C
— Article 46
Explanation:
Article 46 directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections of society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation. It is an important component of the Socialist Directive Principles and strengthens the constitutional concept of social justice.
Question 85: Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Article 25?
Correct Answer:
D
— Freedom of religion is subject to public order, morality, and health.
Explanation:
Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, health, and other Fundamental Rights. Therefore, freedom of religion is not absolute.
Question 86: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 16 relates to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment under the State. (2) Article 16 does not directly apply to private sector employment. (3) Reservation may be provided under Article 16.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public employment under the State. It does not directly apply to private sector employment. Further, provisions for reservation can be made under Articles 16(4), 16(4A), etc., for backward classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.
Question 87: In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court propound that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, but cannot destroy the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
B
— Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, but cannot destroy or alter its Basic Structure. The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in this landmark judgment.
Question 88: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Rights are primarily individual-centric. (2) Directive Principles are primarily State-centric. (3) The ultimate objective of both is the establishment of a welfare state.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty and dignity, whereas the Directive Principles guide the State in formulating policies based on social and economic justice. Despite their differing nature, both aim at establishing a welfare state and realizing the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity embodied in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Question 89: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Article 39A — Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid (2) Article 43A — Participation of Workers in Management of Industries (3) Article 48A — Protection and Improvement of Environment and Safeguarding of Forests and Wildlife
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 39A relates to equal justice and free legal aid. Article 43A provides for workers' participation in the management of industries. Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife. All three are Directive Principles of State Policy. Articles 39A, 43A and 48A were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Question 90: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 15[1] prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. (2) Article 15[3] permits the State to make special provisions for women and children.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both statements are correct
Explanation:
Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen solely on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. Article 15(3) enables the State to make special provisions for women and children. This reflects the constitutional principle of substantive equality.
Question 91: The concept of balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy was particularly emphasized in which Supreme Court judgment?
Correct Answer:
B
— Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Explanation:
In Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary components of the Constitution’s philosophy and that the balance between them forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Question 92: Which of the following rights is specifically granted only to minorities under the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— Right to establish and administer educational institutions
Explanation:
Article 30(1) grants all religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This provision seeks to preserve their language, culture, and educational interests and serves as an important constitutional safeguard for India's pluralistic and multicultural society. The rights mentioned in the other options are generally available to all citizens or persons, as the case may be.
Question 93: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Explanation:
According to Article 37, the Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by courts, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply them in making laws. Therefore, DPSPs are regarded as the cornerstone of the Indian welfare state.
Question 94: Which of the following writs is used to secure the release of a person from unlawful detention?
Correct Answer:
A
— Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
The writ of Habeas Corpus is regarded as the most effective constitutional safeguard of personal liberty. When a person is unlawfully detained, the court directs the concerned authority to produce that person before it. This writ can be issued under Articles 32 and 226.
Question 95: Which Article directs the State to promote international peace and security?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 51
Explanation:
Article 51 directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations among nations, and encourage the peaceful settlement of international disputes. It is an important component of the Liberal-Intellectual Directive Principles and is considered one of the constitutional foundations of India’s foreign policy.
Question 96: Which of the following Fundamental Duties was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002?
Correct Answer:
B
— To provide education to children between 6 and 14 years of age
Explanation:
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A, making it the duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. The same amendment also inserted Article 21A.
Question 97: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IVA of the Constitution. (2) Fundamental Duties are described in Article 51A.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are included in Part IVA of the Constitution and are enumerated in Article 51A. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Their objective is to develop awareness among citizens regarding constitutional values and national responsibilities.
Question 98: After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the enforcement of which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
Correct Answer:
A
— Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation:
Under Article 359, the President may suspend the right to move courts for the enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. However, after the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, the rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during an Emergency. Therefore, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 enjoys special constitutional protection.
Question 99: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 29 — Freedom of Religion
Explanation:
Article 29 relates to Cultural and Educational Rights and guarantees the protection of language, script, and culture. Freedom of Religion is enshrined in Articles 25 to 28. All other pairs are correctly matched.
Question 100: Which of the following is related to the Socialist Principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer:
B
— Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production
Explanation:
Article 39(c) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. This reflects the Socialist objective of reducing economic inequality and promoting distributive justice. Organisation of Village Panchayats is a Gandhian Principle, whereas the Uniform Civil Code is a Liberal-Intellectual Principle.
Question 101: Which of the following is related to the Liberal-Intellectual Principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer:
C
— Establishment of a Uniform Civil Code
Explanation:
The provision for a Uniform Civil Code is contained in Article 44 and is an important example of the Liberal-Intellectual Principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Its objective is to establish a common civil law for all citizens. Village Panchayats and cottage industries are associated with Gandhian principles, while equal pay for equal work is related to Socialist principles.
Question 102: In which Article is the Right to Free and Compulsory Education enshrined?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 21A
Explanation:
Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years of age a Fundamental Right. For its implementation, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 was enacted.
Question 103: Cultural and Educational Rights are primarily enshrined in which Articles?
Correct Answer:
B
— Articles 29–30
Explanation:
Articles 29 and 30 deal with Cultural and Educational Rights. Article 29 guarantees the protection of language, script, and culture, while Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. It forms an important constitutional safeguard for India’s cultural diversity.
Question 104: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Every religious denomination has the right to manage its own religious affairs. (2) This right is provided under Article 26.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both are correct
Explanation:
Article 26 grants every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to establish and manage religious and charitable institutions, subject to public order, morality, and health. It is an important component of the Right to Freedom of Religion.
Question 105: The prohibition on employing children below 14 years of age in factories and mines is contained in which Article?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 24
Explanation:
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous employment. It is a Fundamental Right aimed at protecting children from exploitation and ensuring their welfare. Article 21A guarantees the Right to Education, whereas Articles 39(e) and 39(f) of the Directive Principles of State Policy also seek to protect the interests and development of children.
Question 106: Which of the following rights is available only to Indian citizens?
Correct Answer:
C
— Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
Explanation:
The freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are available only to Indian citizens. In contrast, Articles 14 and 21 are available to all persons, while Article 25 also grants both citizens and non-citizens the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
Question 107: Which of the following freedoms is not included among the six freedoms currently guaranteed under Article 19[1]?
Correct Answer:
B
— Freedom to acquire property
Explanation:
Originally, Article 19(1) provided seven freedoms, including the freedom to acquire, hold, and dispose of property under Article 19(1)(f). However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A. Therefore, the freedom to acquire property is no longer included among the six freedoms under Article 19(1).
Question 108: Under which Article has the abolition of titles been provided?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 18
Explanation:
Article 18 abolishes titles and prohibits the State from conferring titles except military and academic distinctions. The objective is to prevent the creation of artificial social distinctions and preserve the principle of equality. In Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court held that Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles within the meaning of Article 18, provided they are not used as prefixes or suffixes to a person's name.
Question 109: Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 17
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and declares its practice in any form to be a punishable offence. To enforce this provision effectively, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 were enacted. It is regarded as a revolutionary constitutional provision for achieving social equality.
Question 110: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Article 14 provides equality before law to all persons. (2) Article 14 applies only to Indian citizens.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to all persons within the territory of India, including both citizens and foreigners. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct, whereas Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 111: Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Both together strive to establish social, economic, and political justice.
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights establish political democracy, while Directive Principles aim to establish social and economic democracy. The Supreme Court, in various judgments, particularly in the Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills cases, has considered the balance between the two as an important element of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Question 112: What is the current total number of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
A
— 11
Explanation:
At present, Article 51A contains 11 Fundamental Duties. Initially, 10 duties were added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Subsequently, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children between 6 and 14 years of age.
Question 113: Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
A
— 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties were added under Article 51A in Part IVA of the Constitution through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The concept of Fundamental Duties is considered to have been inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR. Initially, there were 10 duties, and the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added one more duty, increasing the total number to 11.
Question 114: Which of the following is an example of the Gandhian Principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer:
D
— Organisation of Village Panchayats
Explanation:
Organisation of Village Panchayats under Article 40 is a prominent example of Gandhian Directive Principles. Mahatma Gandhi supported the concept of Gram Swaraj. Gandhian principles include promotion of cottage industries, protection of livestock, and development of village panchayats. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is particularly significant in this context as it granted constitutional status to Panchayats.
Question 115: Which of the following is related to the Socialist Principles of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)?
Correct Answer:
C
— Equal Pay for Equal Work
Explanation:
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is embodied in Article 39(d) and represents an important Socialist Directive Principle. Socialist principles aim at reducing inequalities and establishing social and economic justice. Organisation of Village Panchayats belongs to the Gandhian Principles, while the Uniform Civil Code is a Liberal-Intellectual Principle.
Question 116: Who described the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the “heart and soul” of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
A
— Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution. It empowers citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court for the protection of their Fundamental Rights. Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Question 117: The Right to Freedom of Religion is enshrined in which Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— Articles 25 to 28
Explanation:
Articles 25 to 28 deal with the Right to Freedom of Religion. They guarantee freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion (Article 25), freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26), freedom from taxation for the promotion of any particular religion (Article 27), and freedom from religious instruction in certain educational institutions (Article 28). India follows the principle of secularism, which has been recognized by the Supreme Court as a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Question 118: Under the Right Against Exploitation, which of the following Articles prohibits human trafficking and begar (forced labour)?
Correct Answer:
B
— Article 23
Explanation:
Article 23 prohibits human trafficking, begar, and other forms of forced labour. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations. The Right Against Exploitation is an important constitutional instrument for establishing social justice.
Question 119: Which of the following rights does not originally fall under the Right to Freedom?
Correct Answer:
C
— Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
Explanation:
Article 19 provides freedoms relating to speech and expression, formation of associations, peaceful assembly, movement throughout India, residence, and profession. The right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice is provided under Article 30, which forms part of Cultural and Educational Rights.
Question 120: In which Part of the Indian Constitution is the Right to Equality primarily enshrined?
Correct Answer:
A
— Articles 14 to 18
Explanation:
The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 under Part III of the Indian Constitution. It includes equality before law, equal protection of laws, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, etc., equality of opportunity in public employment, and abolition of titles. This right is one of the fundamental pillars of Indian democracy.
Question 121: Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties together constitute the rights–welfare–responsibility trilogy of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): The Constitution seeks to establish a balance between individual liberty, social justice, and civic responsibility.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights safeguard individual liberty, Directive Principles provide the framework for social and economic justice, and Fundamental Duties promote civic responsibility among citizens. Together, they reflect the constitutional objective of balancing liberty, welfare, and responsibility. Hence, both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 122: Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy are directly enforceable by courts. Reason (R): Article 37 regards them as fundamental in the governance of the country but does not make them enforceable by courts.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 37 clearly states that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by courts, although they are fundamental in the governance of the country. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is correct. Option D is correct.
Question 123: Assertion (A): Both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles help in achieving the ideals embodied in the Preamble of the Constitution. Reason (R): Directive Principles are not directly enforceable by courts, whereas Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles both contribute to the realization of the ideals enshrined in the Preamble, particularly justice, liberty, equality, and social welfare. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts whereas Directive Principles are not directly enforceable. However, this fact does not explain how both contribute to the attainment of the ideals of the Preamble. Therefore, the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 124: Assertion (A): Developing a scientific temper is not a duty of citizens under Article 51A. Reason (R): Article 51A[h] directs citizens to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Article 51A(h), it is the Fundamental Duty of every Indian citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Therefore, Assertion (A) is incorrect because developing scientific temper is indeed a Fundamental Duty. Reason (R) is correct as it reflects the actual constitutional provision under Article 51A(h). Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 125: Assertion (A): The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case redefined the relationship between Fundamental Rights and the amending power of the Constitution. Reason (R): The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in this very case.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973), the Supreme Court propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine and imposed constitutional limitations on Parliament’s amending power. This redefined the relationship between Fundamental Rights and the amending power. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 126: Assertion (A): Article 51A[a] prescribes the duty to respect the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem. Reason (R): It is the first duty listed under the Fundamental Duties.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 51A(a) lays down the duty to respect the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem. The Reason is also correct, but it merely states the order of the duty and does not explain its purpose. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 127: Assertion (A): One of the objectives of Fundamental Duties is to strengthen citizens’ commitment to the ideals of the Constitution. Reason (R): At the time of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, it was felt that duties should be emphasized along with rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, primarily on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. Their purpose was to promote civic responsibility and reinforce citizens’ commitment to constitutional ideals. The view that duties should be emphasized alongside rights directly explains the rationale behind the inclusion of Fundamental Duties. Therefore, both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 128: Assertion (A): All Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution apply equally to foreign citizens as well. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties are specifically prescribed for Indian citizens.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are prescribed for Indian citizens. Foreign citizens do not fall within their direct constitutional ambit. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is correct.
Question 129: Assertion (A): Article 48A is a Directive Principle relating to environmental and forest protection. Reason (R): Environmental protection has been mentioned only in the Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 48A relates to environmental protection; therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, environmental protection is also mentioned as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(g). Hence, the Reason is incorrect. Option C is correct.
Question 130: Assertion (A): The principle of Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid is embodied in Article 39A. Reason (R): This provision was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 39A indeed deals with Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid. It was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The Reason states the constitutional source of the provision but does not directly explain its objective. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 131: Assertion (A): Article 38 directs the State to establish a social order informed by social, economic, and political justice. Reason (R): The broader objective of the Directive Principles is the establishment of a welfare state.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 38 is regarded as the foundation of the Directive Principles and directs the State to establish an order based on social, economic, and political justice. This forms the basis of the concept of a welfare state. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 132: Assertion (A): Cultural and Educational Rights are available only to religious minorities. Reason (R): Article 29 provides protection to any section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 29 protects the interests of any section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture and is not confined to religious minorities alone. Although Article 30 specifically grants certain educational rights to minorities, Cultural and Educational Rights as a constitutional category cannot be said to be available only to religious minorities. Therefore, Assertion (A) is incorrect, whereas Reason (R) is correct.
Question 133: Assertion (A): The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is confined to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Reason (R): Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any statutory right.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 32 is specifically available for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. For the enforcement of statutory rights, the broader writ jurisdiction of the High Court’s under Article 226 is generally invoked. Therefore, the Assertion is correct and the Reason is incorrect.
Question 134: Assertion (A): The primary objective behind the development of Article 31C was to make certain Directive Principles effective. Reason (R): From the very beginning, Article 31C accorded complete priority to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
The original purpose of Article 31C was to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Articles 39(b) and 39(c). Initially, it did not grant priority to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 extended its scope to all Directive Principles, but this extension was later declared unconstitutional in Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980). Therefore, the Assertion is correct and the Reason is incorrect.
Question 135: Assertion (A): In the Minerva Mills v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy are complementary components of the constitutional scheme of balance. Reason (R): The Court observed that giving absolute primacy to either of them could affect the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court clarified that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary components of the spirit of the Constitution. The Court held that if either is given absolute supremacy, the constitutional balance would be destroyed and the Basic Structure would be affected. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 136: Assertion (A): The balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is regarded as a basic feature of the Indian constitutional framework. Reason (R): In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court linked harmony between the two with the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and that harmony and balance between them form an essential feature of the Constitution. The Court further observed that giving absolute primacy to either would disturb the constitutional scheme and damage the Basic Structure. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 137: Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are enforceable by courts in the same manner as Fundamental Rights. Reason (R): Courts may use Fundamental Duties as an aid in constitutional interpretation.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable by courts; therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. However, courts may use them as guiding principles in constitutional interpretation, making the reason correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 138: Assertion (A): It is a Fundamental Duty of citizens to protect and improve the natural environment. Reason (R): Several laws relating to environmental protection have been enacted by Parliament and State Legislatures.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 51A(g) makes it a Fundamental Duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife. Various environmental laws have indeed been enacted by Parliament and State Legislatures. However, the existence of such laws does not explain why environmental protection has been incorporated as a Fundamental Duty. Therefore, both the Assertion and the reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 139: Assertion (A): All Fundamental Duties were part of the original Constitution. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties were added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties were not a part of the original Constitution. They were inserted into the Constitution through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect while the reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 140: Assertion (A): The objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish social and economic democracy. Reason (R): Political democracy alone was not considered sufficient to achieve the goals of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Directive Principles seek to establish a social order based on social, economic, and political justice and thereby promote social and economic democracy. The Constitution-makers believed that political democracy would remain incomplete unless accompanied by social and economic justice. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 141: Assertion (A): Article 43 directs the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas on an individual or cooperative basis. Reason (R): The Constitution-makers included this provision under the influence of Gandhian ideals of a village-based economy and self-reliance.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 43 directs the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas on an individual or cooperative basis. This Directive Principle reflects Gandhian ideals emphasizing village industries, decentralization of economic activity, and self-reliance. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 142: Assertion (A): Article 39A supports the concept of free legal aid to ensure equal access to justice. Reason (R): The Constitution is concerned that no person should be denied justice due to social or economic disabilities.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, directs the State to secure equal justice and provide free legal aid so that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the constitutional objective underlying Article 39A. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 143: Assertion (A): The principle of Equal Pay for Equal Work is explicitly mentioned among the Fundamental Rights. Reason (R): The principle of Equal Pay for Equal Work is included among the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The principle of “Equal Pay for Equal Work” is contained in Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy and is not expressly included among the Fundamental Rights. Although the Supreme Court has, in certain cases, enforced this principle through Articles 14 and 16, its primary constitutional source remains Article 39(d). Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 144: Assertion (A): Under Article 30, minorities have the right to administer their educational institutions. Reason (R): The State cannot regulate minority educational institutions under any circumstances.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions. However, this right is not absolute, and the State may impose reasonable regulations in the interest of educational standards, administrative efficiency, and public welfare. Therefore, the Assertion is correct while the reason is incorrect. Hence, Option C is correct.
Question 145: Assertion (A): Article 26 grants religious denominations the right to manage their religious affairs. Reason (R): This right is available only to majority religious communities.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 26 grants all religious denominations and their sub-denominations the right to manage their religious affairs. This right is not confined to majority communities alone. Therefore, the Assertion is correct and the reason is incorrect. Hence, Option C is correct.
Question 146: Assertion (A): Religious freedom under Article 25 is subject to public order, morality, and health. Reason (R): The right to religious freedom is not an absolute right.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 25 guarantees religious freedom, but it is subject to restrictions such as public order, morality, and health. This itself establishes that the right is not absolute. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 147: Assertion (A): Article 21A was a part of the original Constitution. Reason (R): The Right to Education for children aged 6 to 14 years was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 21A was not a part of the original Constitution. It was inserted through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years a Fundamental Right. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect while the reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 148: Assertion (A): The protections under Article 20 are available only to citizens. Reason (R): Article 20 provides safeguards relating to conviction for offences.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 20 provides protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination. These safeguards are available not only to citizens but to all persons. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 149: Assertion (A): Freedom of the press is not separately mentioned under Article 19[1][a]. Reason (R): The Supreme Court has recognized that freedom of the press is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19[2].
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Constitution does not expressly mention freedom of the press as a separate right. The Supreme Court has consistently held that it is included within the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). The Court has also clarified that this freedom is subject to the reasonable restrictions specified in Article 19(2). Therefore, both the Assertion and the reason are correct, but the reason does not explain why freedom of the press is not separately mentioned in the Constitution. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 150: Assertion (A): Article 13 of the Constitution provides that any law inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency. Reason (R): Article 13 is one of the important constitutional foundations of judicial review.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 13 declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency. This provision forms one of the principal constitutional bases of judicial review by empowering courts to examine the constitutional validity of laws. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 151: Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties together form the foundation of the moral and social philosophy of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): The Constitution seeks to establish a balance between individual liberty, social welfare, and civic responsibility.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights protect individual liberty, Directive Principles provide direction toward social and economic justice, and Fundamental Duties strengthen civic responsibility. The combined objective of these three is to realize the democratic and welfare-oriented philosophy of the Constitution. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion, and option A is correct.
Question 152: Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are directly enforceable by courts. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IV-A of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable by courts; therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is correct because Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IV-A of the Constitution. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 153: Assertion (A): Developing scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry is a Fundamental Duty of citizens. Reason (R): This provision is included in Article 51A.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 51A(h) makes it a Fundamental Duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. However, the Reason merely points out the constitutional provision in which the duty is contained and does not explain the nature or purpose of the duty. Hence, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 154: Assertion (A): Directive Principles relating to environmental protection were added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Reason (R): There is no mention of environmental protection in the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 48A, relating to environmental protection, was inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is incorrect because environmental protection is mentioned in both the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Duties. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 155: Assertion (A): The directive for establishing a Uniform Civil Code is contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy. Reason (R): Article 44 directs the State to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 44, located in Part IV, is a liberal-intellectual Directive Principle that directs the State to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code. The Reason directly confirms and explains the Assertion. Hence, option A is correct.
Question 156: Assertion (A): Minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Reason (R): This right is embodied in Article 30.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 30 grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. However, the Reason merely identifies the constitutional source of the right and does not explain why such a right is granted. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 157: Assertion (A): Article 29 provides the constitutional basis for the protection of cultural and linguistic identity. Reason (R): Protecting India’s cultural diversity is an important objective of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 29 grants to sections of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same. The Reason is also correct because the protection of India’s cultural diversity is an important objective of the Constitution. However, this is not the direct basis of the specific constitutional right conferred by Article 29; rather, it reflects the broader constitutional philosophy behind it. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 158: Assertion (A): Under Article 28, religious instruction is completely prohibited in any educational institution. Reason (R): The Constitution prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions wholly funded by the State.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 28 does not prohibit religious instruction in all educational institutions. The prohibition applies only to institutions wholly maintained out of State funds. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect while the Reason is correct. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 159: Assertion (A): Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in factories, mines, and other hazardous employment. Reason (R): Article 24 applies only to the private sector.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in factories, mines, and other hazardous employment. The protection applies irrespective of whether the employment is in the public or private sector. Therefore, the Assertion is correct and the Reason is incorrect.
Question 160: Assertion (A): Article 22 provides certain procedural safeguards in cases of arrest and detention. Reason (R): Informing an arrested person of the grounds of arrest is a constitutional requirement.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 22 provides several procedural safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner, and production before a magistrate within 24 hours. The Reason is correct because informing an arrested person of the grounds of arrest is one such constitutional safeguard under Article 22(1). However, it explains only one aspect of Article 22 and not the entire scope of safeguards provided therein. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 161: Assertion (A): Judicial interpretation of Article 21 has greatly expanded the scope of the Right to Life. Reason (R): The Supreme Court has not confined the Right to Life merely to physical existence.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Through an expansive judicial interpretation of Article 21, several rights such as the right to live with dignity, a clean environment, legal aid, privacy, and education (earlier through judicial interpretation) have been developed. This expansion is based on the principle that the Court has not viewed life as mere biological existence. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, option A is correct.
Question 162: Assertion (A): Article 18 completely prohibits military and academic titles as well. Reason (R): The Constitution provides for the abolition of hereditary and State-conferred titles of nobility.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Article 18 abolishes titles based on nobility, but military honors and academic distinctions are not prohibited under it. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is correct because the objective of the Constitution was to establish social equality and eliminate the colonial system of nobility. Hence, option D is correct.
Question 163: Assertion (A): Article 17 abolishes untouchability. Reason (R): Article 17 prohibits the practice of untouchability only in government offices.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 17 completely abolishes untouchability and makes its practice in any form punishable by law. It is not confined to government institutions but applies to all spheres of society. Therefore, the Assertion is correct and the Reason is incorrect. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 was later renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act. Hence, option C is correct.
Question 164: Assertion (A): Article 16 provides equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Reason (R): Article 16 permits reservation for certain classes along with equality of opportunity.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters relating to public employment. The Reason is also correct because clauses such as Article 16(4), 16(4A), and 16(4B) permit reservation for certain classes to achieve substantive equality. However, reservation is an enabling provision and not the reason why Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 165: Assertion (A): Under Article 15, the State cannot discriminate against any citizen solely on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Reason (R): The Right to Equality recognizes not only formal equality but also the concept of social justice.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. The Reason is also correct because the Indian Constitution is not confined to formal equality alone; it also embraces social justice and substantive equality. However, this is not the direct basis of the specific prohibition contained in Article 15(1). Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Hence, option B is correct.
Question 166: Assertion (A): It is the duty of citizens to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 51A(c) makes it a Fundamental Duty of every citizen to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. However, this fact merely explains the origin of Fundamental Duties and does not specifically explain the duty mentioned in the Assertion. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 167: Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are considered complementary to each other. Reason (R): The Supreme Court has, from time to time, accepted the principle of harmonious interpretation between the two.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Supreme Court, particularly in the judgments of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala and Minerva Mills v. Union of India, emphasized that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles should be interpreted harmoniously and that neither should be given absolute primacy over the other. Consequently, both are regarded as complementary and essential for achieving the constitutional vision of justice. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 168: Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties were present in the original Constitution from 1950 itself. Reason (R): Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution that came into force in 1950. They were inserted through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 169: Assertion (A): Gandhian Directive Principles emphasize the organization of village panchayats. Reason (R): Village panchayats are mentioned in Part IV-A of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 40 directs the State to organize village panchayats and is classified as a Gandhian Directive Principle. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, Article 40 is contained in Part IV of the Constitution, whereas Part IV-A deals with Fundamental Duties. Hence, the Reason is incorrect. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 170: Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by courts. Reason (R): According to the Constitution, the objective of the Directive Principles is to establish a welfare state.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 37 provides that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because the Directive Principles aim to establish a welfare state based on social, economic, and political justice. However, this objective does not explain their non-enforceability. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 171: Assertion (A): The Right to Constitutional Remedies is regarded as the means for the protection of Fundamental Rights. Reason (R): Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. For this purpose, the Supreme Court may issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. Because it provides an effective mechanism for enforcing Fundamental Rights, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 172: Assertion (A): The Right to Freedom of Religion is available only to citizens of India. Reason (R): Article 25 grants freedom of conscience to all persons.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The provisions relating to the Right to Freedom of Religion under Articles 25 to 28 are available to all persons and are not restricted to citizens. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion to all persons. Hence, the Reason is correct. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 173: Assertion (A): The Right against Exploitation prohibits human trafficking, begar, and bonded labour. Reason (R): Article 23 of the Constitution applies only to government institutions.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Article 23 prohibits human trafficking, begar, and other forms of forced labour. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, Article 23 is enforceable against both the State and private individuals. Hence, the Reason is incorrect. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 174: Assertion (A): The freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are not absolute. Reason (R): Article 19 of the Constitution grants six freedoms to citizens.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State on specified constitutional grounds. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because Article 19 grants six freedoms to citizens. However, the fact that Article 19 grants six freedoms does not explain why these freedoms are not absolute. Hence, Option B is correct.
Question 175: Assertion (A): The Right to Equality obligates the State to provide equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Reason (R): Article 14 of the Constitution provides constitutional protection against arbitrary State action.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. The Supreme Court has consistently held that arbitrariness is antithetical to equality. Therefore, Article 14 not only ensures formal equality but also prohibits arbitrary State action. Hence, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.