Practice important Indian Constitution MCQs with answers, detailed explanations, and UPSC Previous Year Questions (PYQs). Perfect for UPSC Prelims revision, self-assessment, and exam preparation.
This quiz contains 175 carefully selected multiple-choice questions (MCQ) with detailed explanations for each answer. Questions cover important topics from Polity.
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Indian Constitution MCQ with Answers & UPSC PYQs for Prelims Preparation
Description
Practice important Indian Constitution MCQs with answers, detailed explanations, and UPSC Previous Year Questions (PYQs). Perfect for UPSC Prelims revision, self-assessment, and exam preparation.
Difficulty
Hard
Num Questions
175
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
120 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted, and gave to itself the Constitution on 26 November 1949. (2) Most provisions of the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. (3) The selection of 26 January was also linked to the historical legacy of the freedom movement.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted, and gave to itself the Constitution on 26 November 1949. Most provisions of the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, the day India became a Republic. The date 26 January was chosen to honor the historic memory of the 1930 Purna Swaraj Resolution. Thus, the date holds great significance both constitutionally and in the history of India’s national movement.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The federal features of the Indian Constitution include a written Constitution, division of powers, and an independent judiciary. (2) Single citizenship and the vesting of residuary powers in the Centre indicate a unitary bias. (3) The Indian Constitution combines both federal and unitary features.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The distinctive feature of the Indian Constitution lies in its mixed character. It incorporates federal features—such as a written Constitution, division of powers, constitutional supremacy, and an independent judiciary—as well as unitary features—such as single citizenship, residuary powers vested in the Centre, and emergency provisions. Hence, many scholars describe India as an example of cooperative federalism or a quasi-federal system.
Question 3: With reference to the Preamble, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Preamble expresses the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution. (2) The Preamble may assist in constitutional interpretation. (3) The Preamble itself is the source of the power to amend the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Preamble expresses the objectives, values, and philosophy of the Constitution and serves as an aid in constitutional interpretation. However, it is not the source of the power to amend the Constitution; that power is derived from other constitutional provisions. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 4: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Constitutional Supremacy is a fundamental feature of the Indian system of government. (2) Parliament’s legislative power is limited and controlled by the Constitution. (3) Parliament can enact laws beyond any constitutional limitation.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
In India, the Constitution is supreme, and Parliament derives its powers from it. Any law enacted by Parliament must conform to the Constitution. Judicial Review safeguards this principle. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 5: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for Provincial Autonomy. (2) The Constitution of India granted complete sovereignty to the States. (3) The Constitution adopted some administrative concepts from the Government of India Act, 1935.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935, introduced Provincial Autonomy. The Constitution adopted several administrative and institutional features from this Act, but it did not grant complete sovereignty to the States. Sovereignty resides in the Constitution, and the States are integral parts of the Union. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 6: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The committee system in the Constituent Assembly was intended to make its work more systematic and specialized. (2) Initial drafts on all constitutional matters were prepared directly in the full Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly constituted several committees, such as the Drafting Committee, Union Constitution Committee, Union Powers Committee, and Fundamental Rights Committee, to make its work more efficient. These committees prepared initial reports, which were later discussed in the full Assembly. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Preamble?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Preamble itself confers rights enforceable by courts.
Explanation:
The Preamble summarizes the objectives, ideals, and philosophy of the Constitution and assists in constitutional interpretation. However, it does not by itself confer rights that are directly enforceable in courts. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
Question 8: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the constitutional nature of the Indian Union?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Indian Union is an indestructible political entity created by the Constitution.
Explanation:
The Indian Union is not the result of any contractual agreement among states. The Constitution-makers deliberately used the expression “Union of States” to emphasize that the Union is indestructible and that no state has the right to secede. Parliament may alter state boundaries and names under Article 3.
Question 9: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Indian secularism implies equal respect and impartial treatment by the State towards all religions. (2) The Indian model of secularism is based on a complete separation of religion and the State. (3) Indian secularism is often described as positive secularism.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Indian secularism is not based on the complete separation of religion and the State, as seen in some Western models. It is often described as positive secularism, under which the State adopts an approach of equal respect and impartiality toward all religions. Therefore, the first and third statements are correct, while the second is incorrect.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Kesavananda Bharati judgment did not completely abolish Parliament’s amending power. (2) The judgment imposed limitations on Parliament’s amending power through the Basic Structure Doctrine. (3) Certain ideals contained in the Preamble may assist in identifying the Basic Structure.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Supreme Court recognized Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution but clarified that the Basic Structure cannot be destroyed or altered. The Court regarded ideals such as Democracy, Republic, Justice, Liberty, and Equality embodied in the Preamble as important guides in identifying the Basic Structure. This judgment is considered the most significant landmark in Indian constitutional law.
Question 11: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity mentioned in the Preamble are mutually complementary ideals. (2) Complete neglect of any one of these ideals may affect the basic spirit of the Constitution. (3) The Supreme Court has attached significance to these values in constitutional interpretation.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity are interconnected pillars of Indian constitutional philosophy. The debates of the Constituent Assembly and the interpretations of the Supreme Court emphasize understanding these values as a coherent whole. These ideals have also significantly influenced the development of the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Question 12: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Constituent Assembly could function both as a constitution-making body and as the Central Legislature. (2) After Independence, the Constituent Assembly and the Central Legislature were separate institutions.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
After the enactment of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Constituent Assembly performed a dual role. It was engaged in constitution-making and also functioned as the Central Legislature. When performing legislative functions, it was known as the Constituent Assembly (Legislative). Therefore, the first statement is correct and the second is incorrect.
Question 13: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Objective Resolution. (2) The Objective Resolution later became the ideological foundation of the Preamble. (3) The Objective Resolution was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Objective Resolution on 13 December 1946. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly and later became the ideological and philosophical foundation of the Preamble. Many ideals embodied in the Preamble can be traced to this Resolution.
Question 14: Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the federal-unitary mixed nature of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
A
— Under normal circumstances, the system is federal, while in emergencies it may assume a relatively more unitary character.
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution is based on a federal structure under normal circumstances. However, during emergencies or special situations, the powers of the Union increase and the system may assume a relatively more unitary character. This is why Indian federalism is considered flexible and distinctive.
Question 15: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Constitutional Supremacy and Judicial Review are interrelated concepts. (2) If Judicial Review were abolished, Constitutional Supremacy would remain unaffected. (3) The Supreme Court is regarded as the final interpreter of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Judicial Review is a principal mechanism for protecting Constitutional Supremacy. If Judicial Review were abolished, it would become difficult to challenge laws that violate the Constitution. The Supreme Court is regarded as the final interpreter of the Constitution. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 16: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) All members of the Constituent Assembly were elected through direct elections. (2) Representatives of the princely states were also included in the Constituent Assembly. (3) The composition of the Constituent Assembly ensured representation of both provinces and princely states.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Members of the Constituent Assembly were not elected through direct elections. The elected members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies elected the members of the Constituent Assembly through the system of proportional representation. Representation was also provided to the princely states. Therefore, the second and third statements are correct.
Question 17: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The word “Socialist” was part of the original Constitution. (2) The word “Secular” was also present in the original Constitution. (3) Both words were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 3
Explanation:
The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were not part of the original Preamble. They were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. However, the spirit of these values was embedded in various constitutional provisions from the very beginning. Therefore, only the third statement is correct.
Question 18: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Federalism is regarded as part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. (2) Parliament’s power to alter state boundaries is considered contrary to federalism. (3) Indian federalism differs from classical American federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Federalism forms part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. Although Parliament has the power under Article 3 to alter state boundaries, this is regarded as a constitutional feature of Indian federalism rather than something opposed to it. Indian federalism is more centralized than the American model. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 19: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
D
— Charter Act, 1853 — Introduction of Separate Electorates
Explanation:
The system of Separate Electorates was introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley–Minto Reforms), not by the Charter Act of 1853. The Charter Act, 1853 laid an important foundation for the partial separation of legislative and executive functions and for competitive recruitment to the civil services. Therefore, option D is incorrectly matched.
Question 20: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. (2) The Kesavananda Bharati case altered this view and recognized the Preamble as a part of the Constitution. (3) According to the present constitutional position, the Preamble is regarded as a document separate from the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
In the Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution. Subsequently, in the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Court clarified that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and plays an important role in constitutional interpretation. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 21: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Constitution of India was not merely a compilation of provisions borrowed from foreign constitutions. (2) The Constituent Assembly incorporated Indian conditions, colonial experiences, and the aspirations of the freedom movement into the Constitution. (3) The Preamble presents a concise summary of these historical and ideological objectives.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Although the Constitution drew inspiration from constitutional experiences across the world, it is not merely a collection of borrowed provisions. The Constituent Assembly gave constitutional expression to the aspirations of the Indian freedom struggle, social justice, national unity, democracy, and development. The Preamble presents a concise yet highly powerful summary of these fundamental objectives and ideals.
Question 22: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The concept of “Justice” in the Preamble includes social, economic, and political dimensions. (2) The ideal of justice in the Preamble is related to both the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Preamble expresses Justice in its social, economic, and political dimensions. Fundamental Rights strengthen political and civil liberties, while the Directive Principles guide the State towards achieving social and economic justice. Thus, the Preamble ideologically links different parts of the Constitution.
Question 23: Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between the Government of India Act, 1935, and the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Constitution adopted many administrative, legislative, and institutional provisions from the Government of India Act, 1935, but transformed them within a democratic framework.
Explanation:
The Constitution adopted many administrative, legislative, and institutional provisions from the Government of India Act, 1935, such as the federal framework, the office of Governor, and the Public Service Commission. However, these provisions were transformed to suit the needs of a democratic, republican, and sovereign India. Therefore, it is incorrect both to describe the Constitution as a mere copy of the Act and to regard it as entirely unrelated to it.
Question 24: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The federal structure of the Indian Constitution is regarded as part of its Basic Structure. (2) Parliament can completely abolish the federal structure through a constitutional amendment. (3) The Basic Structure Doctrine imposes limitations on Parliament’s amending power.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Federalism is regarded as an important element of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. The Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament’s amending power and prevents it from destroying the fundamental identity of the Constitution. Therefore, Parliament cannot completely abolish the federal structure.
Question 25: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Preamble may assist in constitutional interpretation where constitutional language is ambiguous. (2) The Preamble is an independent legal source of every Article of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
Courts have repeatedly held that the Preamble assists in understanding the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution, particularly where constitutional provisions require interpretation. However, the Preamble is not an independent legal source of constitutional powers or provisions. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 26: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Both Article 2 and Article 3 relate to the formation of new states. (2) Article 2 primarily deals with the admission or establishment of new territories into the Union. (3) Article 3 primarily deals with the reorganization of existing states.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or establish new states into the Union, whereas Article 3 deals with the formation, division, alteration of boundaries, and renaming of existing states. Together, these provisions provide the constitutional framework for the territorial reorganization of the Indian Union.
Question 27: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the legitimacy of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
B
— Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected on the basis of universal adult franchise, it acquired democratic legitimacy through broad representation, public deliberation, and extensive constitutional debates.
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was not directly elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. Most of its members were elected by the elected members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Nevertheless, it included adequate representation from different regions, communities, and ideological groups. Through extensive debates, committee work, amendment procedures, and public discussion, it acquired substantial democratic legitimacy.
Question 28: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Federal and unitary elements coexist in the Indian Constitution. (2) Emergency provisions completely abolish the federal structure. (3) Indian federalism is often understood in terms of “Cooperative Federalism.”
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution contains both federal and unitary features. During emergencies, the powers of the Union increase, but the federal structure is not completely abolished. Contemporary constitutional discourse often explains Indian federalism through the concept of Cooperative Federalism and, at times, Competitive Federalism. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 29: Which of the following statements most appropriately expresses the relationship between the Preamble and the Basic Structure Doctrine?
Correct Answer:
A
— The ideals of the Preamble may assist in identifying the Basic Structure.
Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Supreme Court recognized the Preamble as a part of the Constitution and accepted that the values and ideals embodied in it may assist in understanding the Basic Structure. Principles such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, Democracy, and Republic provide important guidance in identifying the Basic Structure.
Question 30: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The concept of “Republic” in the Preamble is not confined merely to an elected President. (2) The idea of a Republic is also linked with the constitutional principle of equal opportunity for public offices. (3) A parliamentary form of government is an essential condition for being a republic.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The basic meaning of a republic is that the Head of State is elected rather than hereditary. It is also associated with equal opportunity for public offices and the principle of popular sovereignty. A parliamentary system is not an essential condition for a republic, as many republics follow a presidential system. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 31: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The federal structure of the Indian Constitution and the supremacy of the Constitution are interrelated concepts. (2) Without constitutional supremacy, the constitutional division of powers would be difficult to preserve. (3) An independent judiciary plays a crucial role in the functioning of a federal system.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In a federal system, the Constitution is supreme because it determines the division of powers between the Union and the States. An independent judiciary acts as the guardian of this division and resolves constitutional disputes. In the Indian Constitution, federalism, constitutional supremacy, and judicial review are mutually reinforcing principles.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment altered the Preamble. (2) Any amendment to the Preamble is also subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine. (3) Parliament can alter any part of the Preamble without limitation.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment modified the Preamble. However, after the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the amending power of Parliament is limited by the Basic Structure Doctrine. Parliament cannot destroy the fundamental constitutional values embodied in the Preamble. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 33: Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the concept of “Supremacy of the Constitution” in India?
Correct Answer:
C
— The Constitution is supreme, and Parliament functions within its limits.
Explanation:
In the Indian constitutional system, the Constitution is the supreme legal document. Parliament, the Executive, and the Judiciary derive their powers from the Constitution. Judicial Review serves as an important mechanism for protecting this principle. Therefore, neither Parliament nor the Judiciary is superior to the Constitution.
Question 34: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The federal scheme proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935, could not be fully implemented. (2) The Constitution of India restructured the federal system and provided it with a democratic form suited to the needs of independent India.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The All-India Federation proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935, never came fully into existence because an adequate number of princely states did not join it. The Constitution of independent India adopted several federal features from the Government of India Act, 1935 but transformed them within a sovereign, democratic, republican, and parliamentary framework. Therefore, both statements are correct.
Question 35: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The ideals embodied in the Preamble may be used by courts in identifying the Basic Structure. (2) The Preamble itself confers judicially enforceable rights. (3) The Preamble serves as an aid in constitutional interpretation.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Preamble is not a source of enforceable rights by itself. However, it plays an important role in constitutional interpretation and in identifying the Basic Structure. The Supreme Court has regarded the Preamble as a guide to constitutional philosophy. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 36: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the working of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Constituent Assembly framed the Constitution through extensive debates, a committee system, and a detailed amendment process.
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly framed the Constitution through nearly three years of extensive debates, committee reports, thousands of amendment proposals, and detailed deliberations. This process is regarded as an outstanding example of democratic discussion and consensus-building.
Question 37: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 3, Parliament can alter the name of a state. (2) Under Article 3, Parliament can alter the area or boundaries of a state. (3) Under Article 3, Parliament can abolish the federal system embedded in the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter state boundaries, and change state names. However, this power does not extend to destroying the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Since the federal system is regarded as part of the Basic Structure, Parliament cannot abolish it. Therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 38: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The term “Democratic” in the Preamble signifies only political democracy. (2) The Constitution-makers linked democracy with social and economic justice as well. (3) The democratic ideal in the Preamble is separate from the other parts of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2
Explanation:
The concept of democracy in India is not confined to political democracy alone. The Constitution-makers adopted an integrated vision of social, economic, and political justice. The Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and Directive Principles of State Policy together express the broader concept of a democratic state. Therefore, the first and third statements are incorrect.
Question 39: Which of the following statements is closest to the Supreme Court’s interpretation regarding the nature of the Indian Union?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Union of India is created by the Constitution, and states do not possess a right to secede.
Explanation:
The Indian Union is not the result of any contractual agreement among states. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a “Union of States.” Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clarified that India is not the result of an agreement among states and that no state has a right to secede. The Union is indestructible, though states may be reorganized under Article 3. Therefore, option D is correct.
Question 40: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Kesavananda Bharati judgment established that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. (2) In this judgment, the Court held that the Preamble may assist in identifying the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (3) This judgment adopted a view different from that expressed in the Berubari Union case regarding the Preamble.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. The Court also accepted that the ideals embodied in the Preamble may assist in understanding and identifying the Basic Structure of the Constitution. This approach differed from the view expressed in the Berubari Union Advisory Opinion (1960), which had held that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 41: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Indian Constitution adopted the British Parliamentary System. (2) The Indian Constitution borrowed certain features from American federalism. (3) The Indian Constitution is a creative synthesis of constitutional experiences from various countries.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution draws inspiration from several constitutions across the world. The Parliamentary System was adopted from Britain, certain elements of federalism were borrowed from the United States, the Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by Ireland, and many other provisions were drawn from different countries. However, the Indian Constitution is not a mere copy; it is an original and integrated constitutional document adapted to Indian conditions.
Question 42: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) All decisions in the Constituent Assembly were taken only by a simple majority. (2) A tradition of broad consensus was developed in the Constituent Assembly. (3) Numerous amendment proposals received serious consideration during the constitution-making process.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The functioning of the Constituent Assembly was not based solely on voting. Efforts were made to build broad consensus on most important issues. Thousands of amendment proposals were discussed, and many suggestions were accepted. Consequently, the Indian Constitution is regarded as a document of deliberation and consensus.
Question 43: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Compared to federal features, the Indian Constitution grants relatively greater powers to the Centre. (2) Residuary powers are vested in the States. (3) Emergency provisions reflect the unitary bias of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution makes the Centre relatively more powerful. Residuary powers are vested in Parliament/the Union, not in the States. Furthermore, emergency provisions considerably strengthen the Centre, thereby reflecting the unitary bias of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 44: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The supremacy of the Indian Constitution is based on the supremacy of Parliament. (2) In India, the Constitution is supreme and Parliament functions within its limits. (3) Judicial Review is a mechanism to preserve the supremacy of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Unlike the United Kingdom, Parliament is not supreme in India; the Constitution is supreme. The powers of Parliament are defined and limited by the Constitution. Through Judicial Review, the Judiciary ensures that Parliament and the Executive do not transgress constitutional limits. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Question 45: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
B
— Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee — J. B. Kripalani
Explanation:
J. B. Kripalani was the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad chaired the Steering Committee.
Question 46: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The reorganization of the boundaries of the Indian Union can be carried out by Parliament through an ordinary law. (2) State reorganization always requires a constitutional amendment. (3) Under Article 4, such laws are not deemed to be constitutional amendments.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Articles 2, 3, and 4, Parliament may form, reorganize, or alter the boundaries of States through an ordinary law. Article 4 expressly provides that such laws shall not be deemed constitutional amendments under Article 368. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 47: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Equality, as mentioned in the Preamble, means only political equality. (2) The Preamble also supports equality of opportunity. (3) The ideal of equality is reflected in the Fundamental Rights as well.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
Equality in the Preamble is not confined merely to political equality. It encompasses both equality of status and equality of opportunity. This ideal is further reflected in the Fundamental Rights relating to equality. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 48: Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the development of the sovereignty of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
A
— After 15 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly became a fully sovereign body.
Explanation:
Initially, the Constituent Assembly functioned under the framework of the Cabinet Mission Plan. After the Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on 15 August 1947, it became a sovereign constitution-making body and also assumed legislative functions. Therefore, Option A is the most appropriate answer.
Question 49: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the legislative supremacy of the British Parliament over India. (2) This Act conferred full legislative powers upon the Constituent Assembly. (3) After this Act, the governance of India still depended upon the approval of the British Parliament.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 terminated the legislative supremacy of the British Parliament over India and empowered the Constituent Assembly with both constitution-making and legislative functions. After Independence, the Indian legislature was no longer dependent upon the approval of the British Parliament. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 50: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Charter Act, 1833 strengthened the process of centralization of Indian administration. (2) This Act also took an important step towards the codification of laws. (3) The Act provided for the establishment of the First Law Commission.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1833 was a landmark in the constitutional development of British India. It strengthened legislative centralization and recognized the need for the codification of Indian laws. The Act also provided for the establishment of the First Law Commission, whose first Chairman was Thomas Babington Macaulay. It subsequently played a significant role in the formulation of several laws, including the Indian Penal Code.
Question 51: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949. (2) The entire Constitution came into force on the same day. (3) The Constitution became fully operative on 26 January 1950.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted, and gave to itself the Constitution on 26 November 1949. However, only certain provisions came into force immediately, while the majority of the Constitution became effective on 26 January 1950. On that day, India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect, while Statements 1 and 3 are correct. ________________________________________
Question 52: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Alongside federal features, the Indian Constitution also contains substantial unitary features. (2) For this reason, many scholars have described India as a “Quasi-Federal” State.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution incorporates both federal and unitary features. Owing to this mixed character, constitutional scholars, particularly K. C. Wheare, described India as a “Quasi-Federal” State. In contemporary constitutional discourse, the concept of “Cooperative Federalism” is also widely accepted.
Question 53: Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Government of India Act, 1935 and the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— The Constitution borrowed numerous administrative and institutional provisions from the 1935 Act.
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 is regarded as the most significant colonial source of the Indian Constitution. The federal framework, office of the Governor, Public Service Commissions, administrative arrangements, and several institutional features were inspired by this Act. However, the Constitution did not adopt it wholesale and modified its provisions to suit the needs of an independent democratic India.
Question 54: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Fraternity, as mentioned in the Preamble, is related to the dignity of the individual. (2) According to the Preamble, fraternity is also linked with ensuring the unity and integrity of the Nation. (3) The concept of fraternity was introduced into the Constitution only after the 42nd Amendment.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Fraternity formed part of the original Preamble and was associated with the dignity of the individual and the unity of the Nation. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added the word “Integrity,” but the concept of fraternity already existed in the Preamble. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 55: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The expression “Union of States” was deliberately used in the Indian Constitution. (2) The Constitution-makers intended to clarify that States would not have the right to secede from the Union.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar clarified in the Constituent Assembly that the expression “Union of States” was deliberately chosen to indicate that the Indian Union was not the result of an agreement among States and that no State possessed the right to secede. This is a fundamental feature of Indian federalism and strengthens the unity and integrity of India.
Question 56: Which of the following statements regarding Article 3 is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— Parliament may alter the boundary of a State after obtaining the opinion of the concerned State, even if the State disagrees.
Explanation:
Under Article 3, the President seeks the opinion of the concerned State Legislature, but Parliament is not bound by that opinion. Therefore, Parliament may alter the boundary, area, or name of a State even if the State disagrees. This is one of the reasons why the Indian Union is considered a relatively centralized federation.
Question 57: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Preamble is itself a source of State power. (2) The Preamble helps in understanding the nature and objectives of the Constitution. (3) The Preamble may be referred to by courts in constitutional interpretation.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Preamble is neither an independent source of constitutional power nor a source of enforceable rights. However, it expresses the philosophy, objectives, and basic values of the Constitution, and courts may refer to it while interpreting constitutional provisions. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment accorded special importance to this role.
Question 58: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Drafting Committee presented the Draft Constitution before the Constituent Assembly. (2) The draft prepared by the Drafting Committee was discussed in detail article by article in the Constituent Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Drafting Committee prepared the draft Constitution and presented it before the Constituent Assembly. Thereafter, each article was discussed extensively, numerous amendments were proposed, and the final Constitution was adopted after prolonged deliberations. This is why the Indian Constitution is regarded as a product of comprehensive debate and consultation.
Question 59: Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
D
— Indian Councils Act, 1892 — Separate Electorates
Explanation:
Separate Electorates were introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley–Minto Reforms), not by the Indian Councils Act, 1892. The 1892 Act expanded legislative councils and made limited progress toward indirect elections. All other pairs are correctly matched.
Question 60: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Charter Act, 1853 attempted for the first time a partial separation between legislative and executive functions. (2) This Act permanently extended the rule of the East India Company for another twenty years. (3) Under this Act, the principle of open competition for civil services was accepted.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1853 was an important milestone in the constitutional development of British India. It partially separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s Council and paved the way for competitive examinations in the civil services. Unlike previous Charter Acts, it did not renew the Company’s rule for any fixed period. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 61: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Federal features of the Indian Constitution include a written Constitution, division of powers, and an independent judiciary. (2) Unitary features of the Indian Constitution include single citizenship and vesting of residuary powers in the Centre. (3) The Indian Constitution completely follows the American federal model.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution contains both federal and unitary features. Federal characteristics include a written Constitution, division of powers, and an independent judiciary, whereas single citizenship, residuary powers vested in the Centre, and emergency provisions indicate a unitary bias. India has adopted certain elements from the American model but does not completely follow it. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 62: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The principle of Constitutional Supremacy in India is linked to the concept of Judicial Review. (2) If Parliament enacts a law contrary to the Constitution, the courts can declare it invalid.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Constitutional Supremacy remains effective only when no institution is above the Constitution. Through Judicial Review, the Judiciary can examine legislative and executive actions that violate constitutional provisions. This principle forms the cornerstone of constitutional governance in India and is closely connected with the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Question 63: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
B
— Union Powers Committee — Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of the Union Powers Committee. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. B. N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly and was not the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. The Steering Committee was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Therefore, only Option B is correct.
Question 64: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble. (2) The phrase “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” was inserted through the same amendment. (3) This amendment recognized for the first time the amendability of the Preamble.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and the phrase “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” into the Preamble. However, the question of the amendability of the Preamble was settled through judicial interpretation, particularly in the Kesavananda Bharati Case, and not for the first time by the 42nd Amendment. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 65: Which of the following committees is regarded as the most important committee of the Constituent Assembly because it gave final legal shape to various constitutional proposals?
Correct Answer:
A
— Drafting Committee
Explanation:
The Drafting Committee converted the decisions and recommendations of various committees of the Constituent Assembly into a coherent constitutional text. Under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, it prepared the Draft Constitution and gave final legal shape to constitutional proposals. Therefore, it is generally regarded as the most important committee of the Constituent Assembly.
Question 66: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The concept of Liberty embodied in the Preamble is not confined only to political liberty. (2) The Preamble mentions liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. (3) The term “economic liberty” is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Preamble guarantees liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. The scope of liberty is not confined solely to political liberty. However, the term “economic liberty” is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble.
Question 67: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the nature of the Indian Union?
Correct Answer:
B
— India is an indestructible Union with destructible States.
Explanation:
India is often described as an indestructible Union with destructible States. Under Article 3, Parliament can alter the boundaries, names, and territorial composition of States, while the unity and integrity of the Union remain paramount. This is a distinctive feature of Indian federalism and differentiates it from the American model.
Question 68: Choose the correct answer regarding the Constituent Assembly: (1) The total sanctioned strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389. (2) After Partition, the membership of the Constituent Assembly was reduced to 299. (3) The Constituent Assembly was elected entirely on the basis of universal adult franchise.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, the total membership of the Constituent Assembly was fixed at 389. After Partition, members representing Pakistan ceased to be part of the Assembly, reducing its strength to 299. The Constituent Assembly was not elected on the basis of universal adult franchise; rather, it was elected indirectly by the elected members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 69: Which of the following Acts, for the first time, placed the political functions of the East India Company under the direct control of the British Government?
Correct Answer:
A
— Pitt’s India Act, 1784
Explanation:
Pitt’s India Act, 1784, for the first time, brought the political affairs of the East India Company under the direct control of the British Government. Through this Act, effective governmental control over Indian administration was established. Although direct Crown rule began in 1858, its constitutional foundation was laid in 1784.
Question 70: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Charter Act, 1833 took a significant step toward establishing a centralized legislative system in India. (2) This Act made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India. (3) This Act further strengthened the legislative powers of the provinces.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1833 was an important milestone in India’s constitutional development. It made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India and established centralized legislative authority for the whole of British India. Under this Act, Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. The Act restricted rather than strengthened provincial legislative powers; therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 71: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. (2) The Preamble may assist in identifying the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and may assist in identifying its Basic Structure. Although the Preamble is not an independent source of rights, it possesses significant interpretative and constitutional value.
Question 72: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Parliament can change the name of a State. (2) Parliament can increase or decrease the area of a State. (3) Parliament can declare a State separate from the Union.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 3 empowers Parliament to change the name of a State, alter its boundaries, and increase or decrease its area. However, there is no constitutional provision allowing Parliament to declare a State separate from the Union or permit secession. The Indian Union is regarded as an indestructible Union. Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 73: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
C
— Constitutional Adviser — B. N. Rau
Explanation:
B. N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. The Objectives Resolution was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, while Dr. Rajendra Prasad chaired the Steering Committee. Therefore, only Option C is correct.
Question 74: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Justice mentioned in the Preamble refers only to Political Justice. (2) The Preamble speaks of Social, Economic, and Political Justice.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 2
Explanation:
The Preamble seeks to secure Social, Economic, and Political Justice. This objective forms a crucial foundation of the concept of a Welfare State embodied in the Indian Constitution. Statement 1 is incorrect because justice is not confined solely to the political dimension.
Question 75: Which of the following statements correctly describes Indian Secularism?
Correct Answer:
D
— The State accords equal respect to all religions and may intervene for reform when necessary.
Explanation:
Indian Secularism implies a policy of equal respect and impartiality toward all religions. The Indian State does not adopt any religion as the State religion, but it may regulate religious activities in the interests of social reform, equality, public order, morality, and health. Therefore, Option D is the most appropriate.
Question 76: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Indian Constitution provides for Single Citizenship. (2) Single Citizenship is regarded as one of the unitary features of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
India provides for a single citizenship, and there is no separate State citizenship. This arrangement, inspired by the British model, reflects the unitary tendency of the Indian Constitution. In contrast, countries such as the United States recognize both federal and State citizenship.
Question 77: Which of the following committees was concerned with Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal Areas?
Correct Answer:
C
— Advisory Committee
Explanation:
The Advisory Committee, chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, was constituted to consider matters relating to Fundamental Rights, Minorities, Tribal Areas, and Excluded Areas. The work of its various sub-committees later formed the basis of several important constitutional provisions.
Question 78: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Constituent Assembly functioned as a sovereign body. (2) After Independence, the Constituent Assembly also functioned as a Provisional Parliament.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
After Independence on 15 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly became a sovereign legislative body. It simultaneously performed the functions of constitution-making and acted as the Provisional Parliament until the first elected Parliament came into existence in 1952.
Question 79: Which of the following is the correct chronological order? (1) Morley–Minto Reforms (2) Government of India Act, 1935 (3) Indian Councils Act, 1892 (4) Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms
Correct Answer:
D
— 3–1–4–2
Explanation:
The correct chronological sequence is: Indian Councils Act, 1892; Morley–Minto Reforms, 1909; Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, 1919; and Government of India Act, 1935. This sequence represents major milestones in India’s constitutional development.
Question 80: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 established a system of dual control in India. (2) After this Act, a clear distinction was made between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Pitt’s India Act, 1784 was a significant legislation enacted by the British Parliament that established a system of dual control over Indian affairs. The Board of Control supervised political matters, while the Court of Directors managed commercial affairs. The Act distinguished between the Company's commercial activities and its political functions in India by creating the Board of Control to supervise political affairs while leaving commercial affairs to the Court of Directors. It marked an important stage in the growing control of the British Government over India.
Question 81: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the federal nature and unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— India has a federal structure, but under certain circumstances the Constitution may assume a unitary character.
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution presents a balanced combination of both federal and unitary features. Under normal circumstances, the constitutional division of powers between the Centre and the States reflects its federal character. However, emergency provisions, State reorganization, residuary powers vested in the Centre, and single citizenship demonstrate its unitary bias. Therefore, India is often described as a federation with a unitary tendency.
Question 82: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) Parliament can alter the boundaries of a State. (2) The consent of the concerned State Legislature is binding on Parliament.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
Article 3 empowers Parliament to alter the boundaries of States. Although the President seeks the opinion of the concerned State Legislature, Parliament is not bound by that opinion. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. This is considered an important example of the unitary tendency of the Indian Union.
Question 83: Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
B
— Objectives Resolution — Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
The Objectives Resolution was introduced in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946, not by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
Question 84: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Preamble assists in the interpretation of the Constitution. (2) The Preamble itself confers enforceable rights. (3) The Preamble has been regarded as helpful in understanding the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Preamble expresses the spirit, objectives, and philosophy of the Constitution and serves as an important guide in constitutional interpretation. In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court recognized its significance in identifying the Basic Structure of the Constitution. However, the Preamble is not a source of enforceable rights; therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 85: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Indian Parliamentary System of Government?
Correct Answer:
C
— The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Explanation:
In the Indian Parliamentary System, the President is the constitutional or nominal executive, while the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers constitute the real executive. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and cannot remain in office after losing the confidence of the House. This is the fundamental principle of parliamentary responsibility.
Question 86: Choose the correct answer from the following statements: (1) The Indian Constitution is a blend of both federal and unitary features. (2) States have a constitutional right to secede from the Union.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution establishes a federal system with a unitary bias. States do not possess any constitutional right to secede from the Union. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar clarified that the expression “Union of States” was preferred to indicate that the Indian Union is not the result of an agreement among States and that no State has the right to secede from it.
Question 87: Match the following Committees with their Chairpersons: (1) Drafting Committee — Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (2) Union Powers Committee — Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Union Constitution Committee — Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Provincial Constitution Committee — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. Jawaharlal Nehru chaired both the Union Powers Committee and the Union Constitution Committee, while Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee.
Question 88: Choose the correct answer regarding the Constituent Assembly: (1) All members of the Constituent Assembly were elected through direct adult franchise. (2) The Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2
Explanation:
Members of the Constituent Assembly were not elected through direct adult franchise. They were elected indirectly by the elected members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies through the system of proportional representation, while representatives of the Princely States were nominated. Therefore, the Constituent Assembly was partly elected and partly nominated.
Question 89: Which of the following provisions are associated with the Government of India Act, 1935? (1) Provincial Autonomy (2) Establishment of a Federal Court (3) Complete abolition of Separate Electorates
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 granted Provincial Autonomy and provided for the establishment of a Federal Court. Separate Electorates were not abolished; rather, they were expanded. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect. This Act is regarded as one of the most important constitutional sources of the Indian Constitution because many of its administrative and federal features were incorporated into the Constitution of India.
Question 90: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Regulating Act, 1773 established, for the first time, the control of the British Parliament over the administration of the East India Company. (2) This Act made the Madras and Bombay Presidencies completely independent.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
The Regulating Act, 1773 marked the beginning of British Parliamentary intervention in the administration of India and sought to regulate the affairs of the East India Company. Under this Act, the Governor-General of Bengal was given certain powers of control over the Madras and Bombay Presidencies. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 91: How much time did the Constituent Assembly take to frame the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly worked on the Constitution from 9 December 1946 to 26 November 1949, taking 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days. During this period, 11 sessions were held and extensive debates took place. At the time of its adoption, the Constitution contained 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules, making it one of the lengthiest written constitutions in the world.
Question 92: Which feature of the Indian Constitution distinguishes it from most constitutions of the world?
Correct Answer:
A
— A combination of both federal and unitary features within a single Constitution
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution combines both federal and unitary features in a single constitutional framework. Under normal circumstances it operates as a federal system, while during emergencies it assumes a more unitary character. Consequently, constitutional scholars often describe India as a “Quasi-Federal State” or a federation with a unitary bias. In contemporary governance, the concept of cooperative federalism is also frequently used to describe Centre–State relations.
Question 93: Who was the Chairman of the States Reorganisation Commission?
Correct Answer:
D
— Fazl Ali
Explanation:
The States Reorganisation Commission, constituted in 1953, was chaired by Fazl Ali. K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru served as its members. Based on the Commission’s recommendations, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was enacted, paving the way for the linguistic reorganization of States.
Question 94: Which of the following statements reflects the federal nature of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
B
— There is a constitutional division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Explanation:
The essential feature of a federal system is the constitutional division of powers between the Centre and the States. In India, this division is provided through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. The other options reflect the unitary bias of the Indian Constitution. UPSC frequently asks questions distinguishing federal and unitary features.
Question 95: Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Union is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Indian Union is not the result of an agreement among the States.
Explanation:
According to the Constitution, India is a “Union of States.” Dr. B. R. Ambedkar clarified that the Indian Union is not the result of an agreement among the States and that no State possesses the right to secede from the Union. This feature distinguishes India from traditional federations such as the United States.
Question 96: Under Article 3, Parliament can perform which of the following functions? (1) Formation of a new State (2) Alteration of the boundaries of a State (3) Renaming of a State
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 3 grants Parliament extensive powers relating to the reorganization of States. These include the creation of new States, division of existing States, merger of States, alteration of boundaries, and change of names. For example, the formation of Telangana (2014) and the renaming of Orissa as Odisha (2011) were carried out under this constitutional authority.
Question 97: According to the Indian Constitution, who has the power to form a new State?
Correct Answer:
B
— Parliament
Explanation:
Articles 2 and 3 empower Parliament to admit, establish, create, reorganize, or alter States. The President refers the proposal to the concerned State Legislature for its views, but Parliament is not bound by those views. This power reflects the unique federal structure of India and the strength of the Union.
Question 98: Which of the following words was NOT present in the original Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— Socialist
Explanation:
The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were not included in the original Preamble. They were inserted through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. However, terms such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, Democracy, and Republic were part of the Preamble from the very beginning.
Question 99: In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
A
— Berubari Union Case
Explanation:
In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court expressed the view that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution and is not a source of constitutional powers. However, in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Court revised this position and held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and serves as a guide to understanding its Basic Structure.
Question 100: Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— The Preamble expresses the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution.
Explanation:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution expresses the fundamental ideals, objectives, and philosophy of the Constitution. It embodies core constitutional values such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court clarified that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, though it is not enforceable by itself. Furthermore, the Preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, and hence it is not considered completely unamendable.
Question 101: Constitutional Supremacy implies that—
Correct Answer:
D
— The Constitution is the supreme legal document, and all institutions are subordinate to it.
Explanation:
Constitutional Supremacy is a fundamental principle of the Indian constitutional system. Parliament, the Executive, the Judiciary, and all other institutions derive their authority from the Constitution and must function within its limits. If a law is found inconsistent with the Constitution, the Judiciary may declare it unconstitutional through judicial review. This principle forms the foundation of the Rule of Law and Constitutional Governance.
Question 102: Which of the following best expresses the concept of a Republic in India?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Head of State is directly or indirectly elected.
Explanation:
A Republic signifies that the Head of State is elected, either directly or indirectly, and does not hold office by hereditary succession. In India, the President is the Head of State and is elected by an Electoral College. This characteristic makes India a Republic. The United Kingdom, by contrast, is a Constitutional Monarchy.
Question 103: By which Constitutional Amendment was the word “Secular” added to the Preamble?
Correct Answer:
B
— 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” into the Preamble and replaced the expression “Unity of the Nation” with “Unity and Integrity of the Nation.” Indian secularism implies equal respect for all religions rather than a complete separation of State and religion as seen in some Western countries.
Question 104: Which of the following is NOT a major feature of the Indian Parliamentary System?
Correct Answer:
D
— The executive enjoys a fixed tenure and is independent of the legislature.
Explanation:
In a parliamentary system, the executive emerges from and remains accountable to the legislature. The President is the nominal executive, while the Council of Ministers is the real executive. The Council remains in office only so long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. Fixed tenure and strict separation of powers are features of the Presidential System, not the Parliamentary System.
Question 105: Why is the Indian Constitution described as a federal system with a unitary bias?
Correct Answer:
A
— Because the Centre possesses greater powers than the States.
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution possesses federal features such as a dual polity, a written Constitution, division of powers, and an independent judiciary. However, the Centre enjoys a stronger position than the States. Residuary powers are vested in the Union, emergency provisions considerably strengthen the Centre, and Parliament can reorganize States under Article 3. Therefore, India is generally described as a federation with a unitary bias.
Question 106: When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
B
— 26 November 1949
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted, and gave to itself the Constitution of India on 26 November 1949. Most provisions of the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, chosen as Republic Day in commemoration of the declaration of Purna Swaraj made on the same date in 1930. This date holds immense significance in India’s constitutional development.
Question 107: Who served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
C
— B. N. Rau
Explanation:
Benegal Narsing Rau (B. N. Rau) served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. He studied various constitutions across the world and prepared the initial constitutional draft, which later became the basis for the work of the Drafting Committee. Although not a member of the Drafting Committee, his contribution to constitution-making was highly significant.
Question 108: Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
A
— Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was appointed Chairman of the Drafting Committee, constituted on 29 August 1947. The Committee’s principal responsibility was to prepare the legal draft of the Constitution. Dr. Ambedkar is widely regarded as the Chief Architect of the Indian Constitution.
Question 109: Who presented the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
D
— Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on 13 December 1946, and it was adopted on 22 January 1947. The Resolution later became the ideological basis of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. It outlined fundamental constitutional ideals such as sovereignty, democracy, justice, and equality.
Question 110: Who was the first temporary President of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer:
B
— Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation:
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the senior-most member, presided over the session as the temporary President. Subsequently, on 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
Question 111: Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Independence Act, 1947 is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— It established India and Pakistan as two independent Dominions.
Explanation:
The Indian Independence Act, 1947, passed by the British Parliament, established India and Pakistan as two independent Dominions with effect from 15 August 1947. It ended the legislative supremacy of the British Parliament over India and granted full legislative powers to the Constituent Assemblies of both countries. The Act provided the constitutional basis for the transition from colonial rule to sovereign governance.
Question 112: The Constituent Assembly was formed on the basis of which plan?
Correct Answer:
A
— Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. The Mission proposed an elected Constituent Assembly for framing the Constitution. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as its President. It became the institutional foundation of India’s constitution-making process.
Question 113: Which of the following Acts is regarded as the principal source of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer:
B
— Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 is regarded as the most important constitutional source of the Indian Constitution. Several provisions such as the federal scheme, office of the Governor, Public Service Commissions, emergency provisions, administrative details, and Union–State relations were substantially derived from this Act. Therefore, it is often described as the principal constitutional source of the Indian Constitution.
Question 114: Which arrangement was introduced in the provinces under the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms?
Correct Answer:
C
— Dyarchy
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced Dyarchy at the provincial level. Provincial subjects were divided into Reserved and Transferred Subjects. Reserved Subjects remained under the Governor and his Executive Council, while Transferred Subjects were entrusted to Indian Ministers. It was a limited experiment in responsible government, later abolished by the Government of India Act, 1935, which introduced Provincial Autonomy.
Question 115: What was the most significant constitutional impact of the Morley–Minto Reforms?
Correct Answer:
D
— Introduction of Separate Electorates
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act, 1909, popularly known as the Morley–Minto Reforms, introduced Separate Electorates for Muslims. It is considered the formal beginning of communal representation in India. This provision later played a significant role in Indian politics and the process leading to Partition.
Question 116: An important provision of the Indian Councils Act, 1861 was—
Correct Answer:
A
— Inclusion of nominated non-official members in legislative councils
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act, 1861 permitted the nomination of certain non-official members to the expanded Legislative Council of the Viceroy. It is regarded as the first step towards associating Indians with the legislative process. Under this Act, Lord Canning included Indians in the councils. Separate Electorates were introduced in 1909, while Provincial Autonomy was granted in 1935.
Question 117: Which change resulted from the Government of India Act, 1858?
Correct Answer:
B
— Governance of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
Explanation:
Following the Revolt of 1857, the British Parliament passed the Government of India Act, 1858, which abolished the rule of the East India Company and transferred the administration of India directly to the British Crown. The office of the Secretary of State for India and his Council was established. The Act marked the end of Company rule and the beginning of direct British rule, which continued until 1947.
Question 118: Which of the following Charter Acts completely abolished the East India Company’s trade monopoly?
Correct Answer:
C
— Charter Act, 1833
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1813 ended the Company's monopoly over trade with India, but its monopoly over the China trade and tea trade continued. The Charter Act, 1833 abolished all remaining commercial activities of the Company and transformed it into a purely administrative body.
Question 119: What was the primary objective of Pitt’s India Act, 1784?
Correct Answer:
C
— To establish British Government control over the political affairs of the Company
Explanation:
Pitt’s India Act, 1784 established a distinction between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company. It created the Board of Control through which the British Government exercised direct control over the Company's political affairs. Thus, a system of dual control developed in India. The Act marked an important stage in the increasing control of the British Parliament over Indian administration.
Question 120: Which of the following statements regarding the Regulating Act, 1773 is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— It made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of Bengal.
Explanation:
The Regulating Act, 1773 was the first significant legislation passed by the British Parliament to regulate the administration of the East India Company. It elevated the Governor of Bengal to the position of Governor-General of Bengal and provided for a four-member council. Warren Hastings became the first Governor-General of Bengal. The Act also provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court at Calcutta. Dyarchy was introduced by the Act of 1919, Provincial Autonomy by the Act of 1935, and Separate Electorates by the Act of 1909.
Question 121: Assertion (A): The federal character of the Indian Constitution has been recognized by the judiciary as a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Reason (R): Parliament cannot, through a constitutional amendment, transform India into a completely unitary state.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Supreme Court has recognized federalism as a component of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. The Reason is also correct because, under the Basic Structure Doctrine, Parliament cannot exercise its amending power in a manner that destroys the federal identity of the Constitution. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 122: Assertion (A): Both Article 2 and Article 3 of the Constitution deal with the formation or alteration of states in the Union of India. Reason (R): Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit into the Union, or establish, new states, whereas Article 3 empowers Parliament to reorganize the existing states of the Union.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because both Articles relate to the creation or alteration of states within the constitutional framework of India. The Reason is also correct and clearly distinguishes the scope of the two Articles. Article 2 deals primarily with the admission or establishment of new states, while Article 3 deals with the formation of new states and alteration of the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 123: Assertion (A): The structure of the Indian Union is considered more centralized than American federalism. Reason (R): The Indian Constitution empowers Parliament under Article 3 to alter the boundaries and names of states.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Centre is comparatively more powerful in Indian federalism. The Reason is also correct because Parliament can alter the boundaries, territory, and names of states. Such a power is not available in the American federal system and reflects the relatively centralized nature of Indian federalism. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 124: Assertion (A): The words “Secular” and “Socialist” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Reason (R): Before the inclusion of these words, the Constitution contained no concept of secularism or socio-economic justice.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because these words were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976. The Reason is incorrect because these values were already reflected in various provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 125: Assertion (A): The Preamble is regarded as the source of the Constitution’s authority. Reason (R): The Preamble declares that the Constitution is adopted, enacted, and given to ourselves by “We, the People of India.”
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Preamble clarifies popular sovereignty and the source of the Constitution’s legitimacy. The Reason is also correct and forms the basis of the Assertion. “We, the People of India” establishes the concept of the people as the source of constitutional authority. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 126: Assertion (A): The Drafting Committee was the only committee that played a role in constitution-making. Reason (R): The Drafting Committee was one of the most influential committees of the Constituent Assembly.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because several committees, including the Union Constitution Committee, Union Powers Committee, Provincial Constitution Committee, Fundamental Rights Committee, and Minorities Committee, made significant contributions to constitution-making. The Reason is correct because the Drafting Committee was one of the most influential committees of the Constituent Assembly and was responsible for preparing the final draft. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 127: Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly was established under the British constitutional framework, but after Independence it functioned as a sovereign body. Reason (R): After the enactment of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Constituent Assembly was no longer subject to the legislative authority of the British Parliament.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan within the British constitutional framework. However, after 15 August 1947, it functioned as a sovereign constitution-making body. The Reason is also correct because the Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the legislative supremacy of the British Parliament over India. Consequently, the Constituent Assembly became fully sovereign in the exercise of its constitution-making powers. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 128: Assertion (A): The federal structure proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935 was fully implemented. Reason (R): The federal scheme could not be implemented because the required number of princely states did not join it.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the proposed federal structure was never implemented. The Reason is correct because the federal scheme failed due to the non-participation of the required number of princely states. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 129: Assertion (A): The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 partially implemented the principle of responsibility at the provincial level. Reason (R): The administration of Transferred Subjects was entrusted to Indian Ministers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because a limited form of responsible government was introduced in the provinces through the system of Dyarchy. The Reason is also correct because Transferred Subjects were administered by Indian Ministers who were responsible to the Provincial Legislative Council. This formed the basis of partial responsibility. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 130: Assertion (A): The Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 introduced the system of communal electorates for the first time. Reason (R): The objective of this Act was to accept all major demands of the Indian National Congress.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because Separate Electorates for Muslims were introduced by the Act of 1909. The Reason is incorrect because all demands of the Congress were not accepted; major demands such as responsible government remained unfulfilled. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 131: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1892 accepted the principle of representation in a limited form. Reason (R): Recommendations of local bodies and institutions were used as the basis for selecting certain Council members.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Act of 1892 introduced the element of indirect representation. The Reason is also correct because members were nominated on the recommendations of local bodies. This formed the basis of the limited principle of representation. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 132: Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1858 established parliamentary responsible government in India. Reason (R): Under this Act, the office of the Secretary of State for India was created.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Act of 1858 merely ended Company rule and established Crown rule; it did not establish responsible government. The Reason is correct because the office of the Secretary of State for India was created under this Act. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 133: Assertion (A): The Charter Act, 1833 strengthened legislative centralization in India. Reason (R): This Act abolished the legislative powers of Madras and Bombay.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Act of 1833 strengthened the Central Legislature. The Reason is also correct because the separate legislative powers of Madras and Bombay were abolished, and law-making authority was vested in the Centre. This was the direct basis of legislative centralization. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 134: Assertion (A): Pitt’s India Act, 1784 abolished Company rule and established direct Crown rule. Reason (R): Under this Act, the Board of Control was established.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because Company rule continued until 1858. The Reason is correct because the Board of Control was established under this Act, which increased British Government control over Indian political affairs. The Act established the system of dual control. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 135: Assertion (A): The Regulating Act, 1773 is regarded as the foundation of British constitutional development in India. Reason (R): It was the first Act through which the British Parliament attempted to regulate the Indian administration of the East India Company.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Regulating Act, 1773 was the first organized attempt at British parliamentary intervention and constitutional control in India. The Reason is also correct because prior to this, the Company had been governing almost independently. The initiation of parliamentary regulation of administration is what makes this Act the foundation of constitutional development in India. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 136: Assertion (A): The inclusion of unitary tendencies within the federal framework of the Indian Constitution was intended to strengthen national unity. Reason (R): The Constitution-makers preferred a strong Centre in view of the experience of Partition and administrative necessities.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the blend of federal and unitary features in the Indian Constitution was deliberately adopted. The Reason is also correct because the challenges of Partition, national integration, and administrative stability necessitated a strong Centre. This is precisely the reason behind the unique federal structure of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 137: Assertion (A): Under Article 3, Parliament can alter the boundary, territory, or name of a state. Reason (R): The opinion of the concerned State Legislature is binding upon Parliament.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under Article 3, Parliament has the power to alter the area, boundaries, and name of a state. The opinion of the concerned State Legislature is only advisory and is not binding upon Parliament. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 138: Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution grants states the right to secede from the Union. Reason (R): The Constitution describes India as a “Union of States.”
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Indian Constitution does not grant states the right to secede. The Reason is correct because Article 1 declares India to be a “Union of States.” Dr. B. R. Ambedkar had clarified that this Union is not the result of an agreement among states. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 139: Assertion (A): The Kesavananda Bharati judgment of 1973 strengthened the constitutional status of the Preamble. Reason (R): In this judgment, the Preamble was held to be a part of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Kesavananda Bharati case recognized the importance and interpretative role of the Preamble. The Reason is also correct and forms the basis of the Assertion. This judgment also propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 140: Assertion (A): The term “Socialist” used in the Preamble was part of the original Constitution. Reason (R): The term “Socialist” was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The term “Socialist” was not part of the original Constitution. It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is correct. Option D is correct.
Question 141: Assertion (A): B. N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. Reason (R): B. N. Rau was also the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
B. N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. However, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee was Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 142: Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly was constituted on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946. Reason (R): The composition of the Constituent Assembly was based on direct universal adult franchise.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted on the basis of the Cabinet Mission Plan. However, its members were not elected through direct universal adult franchise; rather, they were indirectly elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 143: Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of a Federal Court. Reason (R): The Federal Court was established in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which came into existence in 1937. It served as the highest judicial authority in India before the establishment of the Supreme Court in 1950. Therefore, both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 144: Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1919 established responsible government at the Central level. Reason (R): Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the system of Dyarchy was introduced only in the provinces.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Government of India Act, 1919 did not establish responsible government at the Centre. The Governor-General and his Executive Council continued to remain responsible to the British Government. The Reason is correct because Dyarchy was introduced only in the provinces and not at the Centre. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 145: Assertion (A): The Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 marked the formal constitutional beginning of communal representation. Reason (R): Through the system of Separate Electorates, separate political representation was provided to different communities.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the reforms of 1909 gave constitutional recognition to communal representation. The Reason is also correct because Separate Electorates were the direct mechanism through which it was implemented. This arrangement later became the basis of communal polarization in Indian politics. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion, and Option A is correct.
Question 146: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1892 granted Council members the right to discuss the Budget. Reason (R): The Councils were also empowered to vote on the Budget and issue binding directions to the Government.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because members were granted a limited right to discuss the Budget. The Reason is incorrect because they were not given the power to vote on the Budget or compel the Government. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 147: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1861 completely abolished central legislative authority and established provincial sovereignty. Reason (R): This Act initiated the process of legislative decentralization at a limited level.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Act of 1861 did not abolish central legislative authority. The Reason is correct because the Act initiated the process of decentralization by granting limited legislative powers to Bombay and Madras. Therefore, Option D is correct. It was a case of limited administrative decentralization rather than complete provincial autonomy.
Question 148: Assertion (A): The Charter Act, 1833 recognized the principle of equality of opportunity in public employment for Indians. Reason (R): After this Act, Indians immediately began to be widely appointed to higher civil services.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Charter Act, 1833 introduced the principle that there should be no discrimination in public employment on the grounds of religion, caste, place of birth, etc. The Reason is incorrect because, in practice, Indians were not immediately appointed on a large scale to higher administrative services. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 149: Assertion (A): Pitt's India Act, 1784 recognized the Company's territories in India as British possessions in India for the first time. Reason (R): After this Act, the East India Company was completely abolished.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because Pitt's India Act, 1784 brought the Company's territories under closer British governmental control and recognized them as British possessions in India. The Reason is incorrect because the East India Company continued to exist until the Government of India Act, 1858 transferred its powers to the British Crown. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 150: Assertion (A): Jurisdictional disputes arose between the Supreme Court established under the Regulating Act, 1773 and the Governor-General’s Council. Reason (R): The Regulating Act, 1773 did not clearly define the boundaries between judicial and executive powers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because several disputes arose regarding jurisdiction and administrative powers between the Supreme Court of Calcutta, established in 1774, and the Governor-General’s Council. The Reason is also correct because the Regulating Act, 1773 failed to clearly define the limits of judicial and executive authority. This ambiguity led to repeated conflicts between the two institutions. To address these shortcomings, the Amending Act of 1781 clarified the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion, and Option A is correct.
Question 151: Assertion (A): Parliament can alter the boundaries of states under Article 3. Reason (R): The Constitution confers upon Parliament the power relating to the formation of new states and the reorganization of existing states.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states and alter the area, boundaries, and names of existing states. Therefore, Parliament can alter the boundaries of states. The Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 152: Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution contains both federal and unitary features. Reason (R): The Constitution-makers adopted the concept of a strong Union in accordance with Indian conditions.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because the Indian Constitution possesses the essential features of a federal system. At the same time, it also incorporates certain unitary features. The Reason is also correct because the Constitution-makers adopted the concept of a strong Union, keeping in mind India's vast geographical size, social diversity, the experience of Partition, and the need for national unity. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion, and Option A is correct.
Question 153: Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has never regarded the Preamble as a part of the Constitution. Reason (R): In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Preamble was held to be a part of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Supreme Court, in the historic Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala judgment, explicitly held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. Although in the Berubari Union case the Preamble was not considered a part of the Constitution, this view was changed in the Kesavananda Bharati case. The Reason is correct because the Supreme Court accepted the Preamble as a part of the Constitution in the Kesavananda Bharati case. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the Reason is correct; hence, Option D is the correct answer.
Question 154: Assertion (A): The Drafting Committee was one of the most important committees of the Constituent Assembly. Reason (R): Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct, but the importance of the Drafting Committee was not solely because Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was its Chairman; rather, it was due to its central role in preparing the Draft Constitution.
Question 155: Assertion (A): All members of the Constituent Assembly were elected through direct universal adult franchise. Reason (R): Most members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was not elected through direct universal adult franchise. Most of its members were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct.
Question 156: Assertion (A): The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the legislative supremacy of the British Parliament over India. Reason (R): Under this Act, India and Pakistan were granted the status of independent Dominions.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
With the establishment of the independent Dominions, India and Pakistan acquired legislative sovereignty, and the supremacy of the British Parliament came to an end. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 157: Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for Provincial Autonomy. Reason (R): The federal structure proposed under this Act was fully implemented.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Provincial Autonomy was a major feature of the Government of India Act, 1935. However, the proposed All-India Federation never came into existence because the princely states did not agree to join it. Therefore, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 158: Assertion (A): The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 introduced Dyarchy at the Centre. Reason (R): This Act divided provincial subjects into Reserved and Transferred categories.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Dyarchy was introduced only in the provinces, not at the Centre. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct.
Question 159: Assertion (A): The Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 established a government responsible to the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): This Act introduced the system of Separate Electorates.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The reforms of 1909 did not establish responsible government. Real progress toward responsible government was made through the Acts of 1919 and 1935. The system of Separate Electorates was a major feature of the Act of 1909. Therefore, Option D is correct.
Question 160: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1892 increased the number of members in the Legislative Councils. Reason (R): The Act introduced an indirect system of election and expanded the scope of Indian representation in the Legislative Councils.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act, 1892 enlarged the Legislative Councils and introduced an indirect electoral principle through recommendations by local bodies and associations. The increase in membership was intended to broaden Indian participation and representation in legislative affairs. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion, and Option A is correct.
Question 161: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1861 opened the way for limited participation of Indians in the legislative process. Reason (R): Under this Act, for the first time, the Viceroy was empowered to nominate Indian members to the Legislative Council.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act, 1861 provided for the nomination of Indians to the Legislative Council for the first time. This provision formed the basis of the limited participation of Indians in the legislative process. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 162: Assertion (A): The Charter Act, 1833 established a highly centralized system of administration in British India. Reason (R): The Charter Act, 1833 granted exclusive legislative powers to the Governor-General of India for the whole of British India.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1833 centralized legislative authority by vesting exclusive law-making powers in the Governor-General of India for the entire British Indian territory. This marked a significant step toward administrative and legislative centralization. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 163: Assertion (A): The Charter Act, 1813 abolished the East India Company's monopoly over trade with India. Reason (R): The Charter Act, 1813 retained the Company's monopoly over the tea trade and trade with China.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1813 ended the East India Company's monopoly over trade with India and opened Indian trade to all British merchants. However, the Company's monopoly over the tea trade and trade with China was retained and continued until the Charter Act of 1833. Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. However, the Reason does not explain why the monopoly over trade with India was abolished; it merely states an exception to the abolition. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 164: Assertion (A): Pitt's India Act, 1784 increased the influence of the British Government over the political affairs of the Company. Reason (R): This Act completely deprived the East India Company of its right to trade in India.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct because Pitt's India Act, 1784 established the Board of Control, which enhanced the British Government's control over the political affairs of the Company. The Reason is incorrect because the Act did not abolish the Company's commercial rights. The Company's trading monopoly was gradually abolished through subsequent Charter Acts. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 165: Assertion (A): The Regulating Act, 1773 transformed the Governor of Bengal into the Governor-General of Bengal. Reason (R): The objective of this Act was to strengthen centralization and control in the Company's administration in India.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Regulating Act, 1773 converted the office of the Governor of Bengal into that of the Governor-General of Bengal, and Warren Hastings became its first Governor-General. Its primary objective was to establish centralization and control in the Company's administration. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 166: Assertion (A): The Preamble is regarded as an integral part of the Constitution. Reason (R): The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case, held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be used to interpret constitutional provisions. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 167: Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly was functioning as a sovereign body while framing the Constitution. Reason (R): After the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Constituent Assembly acquired both legislative and constitution-making powers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
After the enactment of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, the Constituent Assembly became a fully sovereign body. It functioned both as a constitution-making body and as the Dominion Legislature. Since it was no longer subject to the authority of the British Parliament, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 168: Assertion (A): The federal scheme proposed under the Government of India Act, 1935 was fully implemented. Reason (R): This Act provided for Provincial Autonomy.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an All-India Federation consisting of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. However, the federation never came into existence because the princely states did not join it. On the other hand, the provision relating to Provincial Autonomy was implemented in 1937. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct.
Question 169: Assertion (A): The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 introduced Dyarchy at the provincial level. Reason (R): Under this Act, a complete federal system was established at the Centre.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces by dividing subjects into Reserved and Transferred categories. No federal system was established at the Centre under this Act. Therefore, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 170: Assertion (A): The Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 introduced the system of Separate Electorates. Reason (R): This Act established full responsible government in India.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced Separate Electorates for Muslims. However, it did not establish responsible government in India. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect.
Question 171: Assertion (A): The Indian Councils Act, 1892 introduced the element of indirect election into the legislative councils. Reason (R): Under this Act, recommendations of local bodies, universities, and chambers of commerce were given importance in the selection of certain non-official members.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Although the Act did not officially use the term "election," non-official members were nominated on the recommendation of local bodies, universities, chambers of commerce and other institutions. This introduced the principle of indirect election. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 172: Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1858 established responsible government in India. Reason (R): Under this Act, the administration of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1858 abolished the rule of the East India Company and transferred the administration of India directly to the British Crown. However, it did not introduce responsible government or any form of representative government in India. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct.
Question 173: Assertion (A): The Charter Act, 1833 made the Governor-General of India the Governor-General of the entire British India. Reason (R): The Charter Act, 1833 granted independent legislative powers to the provinces.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Charter Act, 1833 redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, making him responsible for the administration of all British territories in India. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. The Act centralized legislative powers and deprived the provinces of their independent legislative authority. Therefore, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 174: Assertion (A): Pitt's India Act, 1784 established the system of Dual Control in India. Reason (R): This Act established the Board of Control, through which the British Government obtained control over the political affairs of the Company.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Pitt's India Act, 1784 created the Board of Control, which supervised political affairs, while the Court of Directors retained control over commercial affairs. This arrangement came to be known as the system of Dual Control. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 175: Assertion (A): The Regulating Act, 1773 marked the formal beginning of British parliamentary control in India. Reason (R): Through this Act, the administrative functions of the East India Company were brought under the regulation of the British Parliament for the first time.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Regulating Act, 1773 was the first major legislation enacted by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It marked the beginning of parliamentary control over the Company's administration. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.