Practice important State Government MCQs for UPSC Prelims with answers and detailed explanations. Solve Indian Polity PYQs, objective questions, and exam-oriented practice questions to strengthen your UPSC preparation.
This quiz contains 117 carefully selected multiple-choice questions (MCQ) with detailed explanations for each answer. Questions cover important topics from Polity.
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State Government MCQ for UPSC Prelims | Indian Polity PYQ & Practice Questions with Answers
Description
Practice important State Government MCQs for UPSC Prelims with answers and detailed explanations. Solve Indian Polity PYQs, objective questions, and exam-oriented practice questions to strengthen your UPSC preparation.
Difficulty
Hard
Num Questions
117
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
100 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Indian State Government system?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the State.
Explanation:
In the parliamentary system of government, the Chief Minister is the real executive head, while the Governor is the nominal head of the State. The Governor also possesses certain constitutional, legislative, and discretionary powers. The State Legislature is a full-fledged legislative institution and not merely an advisory body.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor may reserve certain Bills for the consideration of the President. (2) The President may assent to or withhold assent from a Bill reserved for consideration. (3) The Governor may reject the decision of the President.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Under Articles 200 and 201, the Governor may reserve certain Bills for the consideration of the President. The President may assent to the Bill or withhold assent. The Governor has no authority to override or reject the President's decision. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 3: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Legislative Council is a permanent House.
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. Its members retire periodically. Therefore, option D is correct, while the other options are incorrect.
Question 4: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly. (2) All powers of the Governor are bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers. (3) In certain situations, the Governor may act in his/her discretion.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly, ordinarily on the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in certain exceptional situations the Governor may exercise discretionary powers. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 5: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— The State Legislature can make laws on subjects in the State List and the Concurrent List.
Explanation:
The State Legislature can ordinarily legislate on subjects included in the State List and the Concurrent List. The power to legislate on subjects in the Union List generally belongs to Parliament.
Question 6: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. (2) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. (3) The Governor is responsible to the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Chief Minister is the head of the State Council of Ministers, and the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly (Article 164). The Governor is not responsible to the Council of Ministers but functions in accordance with the Constitution. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Explanation:
Under Article 156, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning that the Governor may be removed without any formal impeachment process. Therefore, option D is correct, while the other options are constitutionally incorrect.
Question 8: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature. (2) The Governor can participate in the voting process. (3) The Governor can address the Legislature.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 168, the Governor is a constituent part of the State Legislature but is not a member of either House and therefore cannot vote. The Governor has the right to address the Legislature. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 9: Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the discretionary powers of the Governor?
Correct Answer:
C
— Some discretionary powers are expressly provided in the Constitution, while others have evolved through convention.
Explanation:
The discretionary powers of the Governor are not confined to those expressly listed in the Constitution. Some are constitutionally explicit (such as sending reports to the President), while others have evolved through convention and circumstances, such as appointing a Chief Minister in a hung Assembly. Therefore, option C is correct.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The State Government has no formal role in the appointment of the Governor. (2) The grounds for removing the Governor are explicitly listed in the Constitution. (3) The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President, and the State Government has no formal role in the appointment process. Under Article 156, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning that the Governor may be removed without assigning reasons. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect because the Constitution does not explicitly list grounds for removal.
Question 11: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor plays an important role in Centre–State relations. (2) The Governor is only a representative of the State Government. (3) The Governor is appointed by the President as a part of the constitutional scheme of Indian federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Governor serves as a constitutional link between the Union and the State. The Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155 and forms an important component of India's federal constitutional framework. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 12: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for the Governor to take a decision on a Bill. (2) A Bill may remain pending before the Governor for an indefinite period. (3) The term "Pocket Veto" is expressly used in the Constitution with reference to the Governor.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which the Governor must act on a Bill. Consequently, a Bill may remain pending before the Governor for an indefinite period. However, the expression "Pocket Veto" does not appear in the Constitution. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 13: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— The Governor serves as a constitutional link between the State and the Centre.
Explanation:
The Governor functions as a constitutional bridge between the Centre and the State, particularly in matters relating to Article 356, assent to Bills, and reporting to the President. The office is not political but constitutional, and the Governor is appointed by the President.
Question 14: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor can address the State Legislative Assembly. (2) The Governor can address the Legislative Council. (3) The Governor addresses only the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Under Articles 175 and 176, the Governor may address the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council (where it exists), or both Houses assembled together. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 15: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Governor is a constitutional functionary appointed by the President and is not politically responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
Explanation:
The Governor is a constitutional functionary appointed by the President and is not politically responsible to the State Legislative Assembly. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Therefore, option B is correct.
Question 16: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Ordinarily, the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister. (2) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. (3) Parliamentary conventions play an important role in the appointment of the Chief Minister.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Although constitutionally the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, in practice the position is offered to the leader of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly. This is based on parliamentary conventions and democratic norms. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 17: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council?
Correct Answer:
B
— It is done by Parliament through a law under Article 169.
Explanation:
Under Article 169, if the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority, Parliament may enact a law to create or abolish the Legislative Council in that State. Therefore, option B is correct.
Question 18: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor is a part of the State Legislature but is not a member of either House. (2) The Governor cannot vote in either House of the Legislature. (3) The Governor is not politically responsible to the Legislature.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Governor is a constituent part of the State Legislature but is not a member of either House. Therefore, the Governor cannot vote. Further, the Governor is not politically responsible to the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council. Hence, all three statements are correct.
Question 19: Which of the following statements regarding a Proclamation under Article 356 is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— A Proclamation under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months to remain in force.
Explanation:
A Proclamation under Article 356 takes effect immediately but must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months to remain in force. In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that such Proclamations are subject to judicial review. Therefore, option C is correct.
Question 20: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The discretionary powers of the Governor are not exhaustively and explicitly listed in the Constitution. (2) Judicial review of the exercise of the Governor's discretionary powers is not completely barred. (3) The role of the Governor becomes important in the event of a hung Assembly.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Some discretionary powers of the Governor are expressly provided in the Constitution, while others have evolved through constitutional practice and circumstances. Judicial review of these powers is not completely prohibited. In the case of a hung Assembly, the Governor plays a crucial role in the appointment of the Chief Minister and the formation of the government.
Question 21: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The powers of the Governor act as a constitutional bridge between the Centre and the State. (2) The Governor’s role is confined only to the State level. (3) The Governor is appointed by the President.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Governor acts as a constitutional link between the Centre and the State, particularly in matters relating to President’s Rule and the reservation of Bills. The Governor is appointed by the President. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Governor also plays an important role in Centre–State relations.
Question 22: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— The establishment or abolition of a Legislative Council is carried out by Parliament.
Explanation:
Under Article 169, Parliament may by law create or abolish a Legislative Council on the basis of a resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State by a special majority. Therefore, the final authority lies with Parliament, not with the Governor or through a Constitutional Amendment.
Question 23: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor is the real executive head of the State. (2) The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the State. (3) The Governor is completely bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2
Explanation:
In the parliamentary form of government, the Governor is the constitutional or nominal executive head of the State, while the Chief Minister is the real executive head. Although the Governor generally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, the Constitution recognises limited discretionary powers in specific situations. Therefore, only Statement (2) is correct.
Question 24: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor may prorogue the State Legislature. (2) The Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly. (3) Both these powers are entirely dependent on the advice of the State Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under Article 174, the Governor has the power to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Ordinarily, these powers are exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in exceptional constitutional situations, such as uncertainty regarding majority support, limited discretion may arise. Therefore, Statement (3) is incorrect because these powers are not entirely dependent on ministerial advice.
Question 25: Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Rajya Sabha can authorise Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List.
Explanation:
Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may, by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, pass a resolution in the national interest authorising Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List. The other options are incorrect.
Question 26: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor cannot exercise discretion under any circumstances. (2) The Constitution permits the Governor to take independent decisions in certain situations. (3) The Governor also functions as a representative of the President.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Governor ordinarily acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but may exercise discretionary powers in certain circumstances. The Governor also functions as the constitutional representative of the President/Centre in the State. Therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct, whereas Statement 1 is incorrect.
Question 27: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 200, the Governor may assent to a Bill, withhold assent, return it for reconsideration [if it is not a Money Bill], or reserve it for the consideration of the President. (2) A Money Bill cannot be returned by the Governor for reconsideration. (3) A Bill reserved for the consideration of the President is decided under Article 201.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 200 provides four alternatives before the Governor regarding a State Bill. However, a Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration. If a Bill is reserved for the President, Article 201 governs the subsequent procedure.
Question 28: Which Article empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances?
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 213
Explanation:
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session and immediate action is necessary. This power is analogous to the President’s Ordinance-making power under Article 123. An Ordinance is a temporary law and must subsequently receive legislative approval.
Question 29: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. (2) The Governor may exercise discretion in certain situations recognised by the Constitution or constitutional practice. (3) The Governor's role in the parliamentary system is purely ceremonial.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Governor normally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in certain situations such as a hung Assembly or reservation of a Bill for the President, the Governor may exercise discretion. Therefore, Statement (3) is incorrect because the Governor performs several constitutional functions beyond a purely ceremonial role.
Question 30: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Indian federalism is not a completely symmetrical federation. (2) The Union possesses relatively greater powers over the States in certain situations. (3) The institution of the Governor also functions as a constitutional link between the Centre and the States.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Indian federalism is often described as a “federation with a strong Centre.” The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on State List subjects under certain special circumstances, while the Governor also acts as a constitutional bridge between the Centre and the States. Hence, India is not regarded as a completely symmetrical federation.
Question 31: Which of the following statements is in conformity with the constitutional spirit of the Supreme Court’s judgment in S. R. Bommai v. Union of India [1994]?
Correct Answer:
D
— The majority enjoyed by a Council of Ministers should ordinarily be tested on the floor of the House.
Explanation:
In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court clarified that the majority of a government should ordinarily be tested on the floor of the Legislative Assembly and not merely on the subjective satisfaction of the Governor. The judgment established significant constitutional safeguards against the misuse of Article 356 and strengthened the role of judicial review.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List. (2) A special majority of the Rajya Sabha is required for this purpose. (3) The Lok Sabha alone cannot confer such authority.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may, by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, pass a resolution in the national interest authorising Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List. This special power is vested in the Rajya Sabha because it represents the States. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 33: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor could nominate an Anglo-Indian member to the State Legislative Assembly. (2) This provision ceased to exist after the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act. (3) At present, the Governor does not have the power to nominate an Anglo-Indian member to the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 333 originally empowered the Governor to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly if the community was not adequately represented. This provision was discontinued by the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2019, with effect from 25 January 2020. Therefore, such nomination is no longer permissible.
Question 34: Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Article 356?
Correct Answer:
D
— It relates to the failure of the constitutional machinery in a State.
Explanation:
Article 356 deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery in a State, commonly known as President’s Rule. It may be imposed on the basis of the Governor’s report or information received from other sources. Financial Emergency is governed by Article 360.
Question 35: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Legislative Council can delay an Ordinary Bill for a maximum of four months. (2) The Legislative Council can permanently block an Ordinary Bill. (3) The ultimate supremacy of the Legislative Assembly remains intact even in the case of Ordinary Bills.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Legislative Council may delay an Ordinary Bill for a maximum of three months in the first instance and one month when the Bill is passed again by the Assembly, resulting in a total delay of about four months. However, it cannot permanently block the Bill. Ultimately, the supremacy of the Legislative Assembly prevails. Hence, the Legislative Council is regarded as a revising chamber rather than a decisive chamber.
Question 36: How many of the following pairs of Articles and subjects are correctly matched? (1) 163 – State Council of Ministers (2) 164 – Appointment of Ministers (3) 168 – Composition of the State Legislature (4) 171 – Governor’s Power of Pardon
Correct Answer:
C
— Only three
Explanation:
Article 163 relates to the State Council of Ministers, Article 164 deals with the appointment and responsibility of Ministers, and Article 168 concerns the composition of the State Legislature. The Governor’s power of pardon is provided under Article 161, not Article 171. Therefore, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched.
Question 37: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Council of Ministers does not cease immediately after the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. (2) A caretaker government may function until a new government is formed. (3) A caretaker government generally refrains from taking major policy decisions.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Even after the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, the Council of Ministers continues to function in a caretaker capacity to ensure administrative continuity. This arrangement remains in force until a new government is formed. By constitutional convention, a caretaker government generally avoids taking major policy or controversial decisions.
Question 38: Which of the following situations is considered a valid ground for the Governor to reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?
Correct Answer:
D
— When the Bill affects the powers of the High Court.
Explanation:
According to Article 200, if a Bill affects the constitutional position or powers of the High Court, the Governor may be required to reserve it for the consideration of the President. Such action may also be taken in certain other sensitive matters. This provision is important for safeguarding judicial independence and maintaining constitutional balance.
Question 39: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor’s power of pardon is vested under Article 161. (2) The Governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. (3) The Governor can grant pardon in all offences related to Union laws.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under Article 161, the Governor may grant pardon, reprieve, respite, remission, suspension or commutation in respect of offences against laws relating to matters within the executive power of the State. The Governor may also suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. However, the Governor cannot exercise this power in respect of offences falling exclusively within the Union's executive domain. Therefore, Statements (1) and (2) are correct, while Statement (3) is incorrect.
Question 40: Which of the following statements most appropriately expresses a feature of Indian federalism?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List under special circumstances.
Explanation:
Indian federalism is characterized by a strong Centre. The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List under certain special circumstances, such as national interest, emergencies, or at the request of States. This reflects the distinctive flexible nature of the Indian federal system. The other options are contrary to the basic structure of the Constitution and the federal framework.
Question 41: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor can promulgate an Ordinance. (2) An Ordinance can be promulgated only when the Legislative Assembly is not in session and, where there is a Legislative Council, both Houses are not in session. (3) The Ordinance must be approved within six weeks of the reassembly of the Legislature.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 213, the Governor may promulgate an Ordinance when the Legislative Assembly is not in session and, in States having a Legislative Council, when neither House is in session, provided immediate action is necessary. The Ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the Legislature reassembles unless approved by the Legislature.
Question 42: Which of the following situations relates to Centre–State legislative relations?
Correct Answer:
C
— Conflict of laws in the Concurrent List
Explanation:
Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on subjects in the Concurrent List. If an inconsistency arises between the two laws, Article 254 becomes applicable. This is a major aspect of Centre–State legislative relations. The other options relate to the internal constitutional arrangements of the State rather than Centre–State legislative relations.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The total membership of a Legislative Council shall not exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of the State. (2) The total membership of a Legislative Council shall not be less than 40, except in certain cases specifically provided by Parliament.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Article 171 provides that the strength of a Legislative Council shall not exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly and shall not ordinarily be less than 40. Parliament may provide exceptions for certain States. Therefore, both statements are correct.
Question 44: In which of the following situations can the Governor return a bill for reconsideration?
Correct Answer:
D
— Ordinary Bill
Explanation:
Under Article 200, the Governor may return an Ordinary Bill (other than a Money Bill) for reconsideration by the State Legislature. If the Legislature passes the Bill again, with or without amendments, the Governor shall not withhold assent. However, in appropriate cases, the Governor may reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President. A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration.
Question 45: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor is a part of the State Legislature. (2) The Governor is a member of the Legislative Assembly. (3) The Governor can address the Legislature.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 168, the Governor is a constituent part of the State Legislature, but is not a member of either House. The Governor has the right to address the Legislative Assembly or a joint sitting of both Houses. Therefore, the first and third statements are correct, while the second statement is incorrect. This question is important for understanding the legislative role of the Governor.
Question 46: Which Article of the Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor?
Correct Answer:
C
— Article 163
Explanation:
Article 163 provides for a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its head to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Governor is required to act in his discretion. Article 164 deals with the appointment, tenure and responsibility of ministers.
Question 47: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Legislative Council is more powerful than the Legislative Assembly. (2) The Legislative Assembly enjoys a superior position in matters relating to Money Bills. (3) The Legislative Assembly can remove the Council of Ministers from office by passing a no-confidence motion.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is less powerful than the Legislative Assembly. The Assembly has supremacy in matters relating to Money Bills, and the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. The Assembly can remove the government by passing a no-confidence motion. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect, while the second and third statements are correct.
Question 48: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor may reserve a bill for the consideration of the President. (2) Once reserved for the President’s consideration, the final decision on the bill is taken by the President. (3) The President may grant assent to the bill or withhold assent.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Articles 200 and 201, the Governor may reserve certain Bills for the consideration of the President. Once reserved, the final decision rests with the President. The President may grant assent, withhold assent, or direct the Governor to return the Bill (if it is not a Money Bill) for reconsideration by the State Legislature. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 49: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The State Legislature can make laws on subjects in the State List. (2) The State Legislature can also make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List. (3) In case of a conflict between a State law and a Parliamentary law on a Concurrent List subject, the Parliamentary law generally prevails.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The State Legislature can make laws on subjects in both the State List and the Concurrent List. Under Article 254, in the event of inconsistency between State and Parliamentary laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Parliamentary law generally prevails, although in certain circumstances a State law that has received Presidential assent may enjoy precedence as an exception. This is a highly significant constitutional concept in India’s federal system.
Question 50: Which of the following situations is considered an example of the Governor’s discretionary power?
Correct Answer:
A
— Appointment of the Chief Minister when there is no clear majority.
Explanation:
In the event of a hung assembly, the Governor may need to decide which leader should be invited to form the government. This is one of the Governor’s major discretionary powers. In contrast, ministers are generally appointed on the advice of the Chief Minister, and the budget is presented by the State Government.
Question 51: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Legislative Council cannot reject a Money Bill. (2) The Legislative Council can withhold a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both
Explanation:
Under Article 198, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly. The Legislative Council has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill; it may only make recommendations. The Council must return the Bill within 14 days. If it fails to do so, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Legislative Assembly.
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the composition of the Legislative Council?
Correct Answer:
D
— All members are nominated by the Governor.
Explanation:
Under Article 171, the composition of the Legislative Council is mixed in nature. Some members are elected by local bodies, graduates, and teachers; some are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly; and only a limited portion is nominated by the Governor. Therefore, the statement “All members are nominated by the Governor” is incorrect.
Question 53: Under which of the following circumstances can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?
Correct Answer:
A
— When the Rajya Sabha passes a special resolution in the national interest.
Explanation:
Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List, Parliament may do so. This is a distinctive feature of Indian federalism.
Question 54: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. (2) Other ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. (3) If a minister is not a member of the Legislature at the time of appointment, he/she must become a member of the Legislature within six months.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and other ministers are appointed on the advice of the Chief Minister. A non-member may also be appointed as a minister, but he/she must become a member of the State Legislature within six months; otherwise, he/she cannot continue as a minister. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 55: Which of the following statements regarding the Legislative Council is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— It is a permanent House.
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is a permanent House at the State level, similar to the Rajya Sabha, and is not subject to dissolution. Its members have a tenure of six years, and approximately one-third of the members retire every two years. Members are elected through various electoral constituencies and nomination processes. Therefore, only option B is correct.
Question 56: Which of the following bills can be introduced in the State Legislature only on the prior recommendation of the Governor?
Correct Answer:
A
— Money Bill
Explanation:
Under Article 207 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislature only on the prior recommendation of the Governor. This reflects the constitutional principle that financial initiatives originate from the executive. Such prior recommendation is generally not required for Ordinary Bills.
Question 57: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Governor is the constitutional head of the State. (2) The Governor generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. (3) The Governor has also been granted certain discretionary powers by the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Governor is the constitutional head of the State and, under Article 163, generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, the Constitution also grants certain discretionary powers to the Governor in specific situations, such as appointing a Chief Minister in the case of a hung assembly or reserving certain bills for the consideration of the President. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 58: Which of the following statements is correct regarding Centre–State relations?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on State List subjects under certain circumstances.
Explanation:
Ordinarily, the State Legislature legislates on subjects in the State List. However, Parliament may also legislate on State List subjects under certain circumstances, such as when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in the national interest (Article 249), during a National Emergency (Article 250), at the request of two or more States (Article 252), or for implementing international agreements and treaties (Article 253). This reflects the flexible nature of Indian federalism.
Question 59: In which of the following situations can the Governor exercise relatively greater discretion in appointing the Chief Minister?
Correct Answer:
D
— When no party secures a clear majority in the Legislative Assembly.
Explanation:
In a hung Assembly, the Governor may exercise discretion in identifying the person most likely to command majority support in the Legislative Assembly. However, such discretion is subject to constitutional conventions, judicial principles, and the requirement of proving majority support on the floor of the House.
Question 60: What is the tenure of members of the Legislative Council?
Correct Answer:
C
— 6 years
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. Each member serves a term of 6 years, and approximately one-third of its members retire every two years. This arrangement is similar to that of the Rajya Sabha at the Union level.
Question 61: Which of the following subjects is included in the State List?
Correct Answer:
A
— Public Order
Explanation:
Public Order is a subject in the State List, on which the State Legislature can make laws. Citizenship, Posts and Telegraphs, and Atomic Energy are subjects in the Union List. Knowledge of the Seventh Schedule is fundamental to understanding Centre–State relations.
Question 62: Which of the following is not included among the legislative powers of the Governor?
Correct Answer:
D
— Appointing Judges of the High Court
Explanation:
The Governor may summon, prorogue, and address the Legislative Assembly, all of which form part of the Governor’s legislative powers. However, Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President, and the Governor has no appointing authority in this matter.
Question 63: Which of the following statements regarding the State Council of Ministers is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— It is headed by the Chief Minister.
Explanation:
The State Council of Ministers is headed by the Chief Minister, who is the real head of the State administration. Members of the Council of Ministers may belong to either the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. In the parliamentary system, the role of the Chief Minister at the State level is similar to that of the Prime Minister at the Union level.
Question 64: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Every State has a Legislative Assembly. (2) Every State has a Legislative Council.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 only
Explanation:
According to Article 168, every State must have a Legislative Assembly, whereas a Legislative Council exists only in certain States. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 65: Who administers the oath of office to the Governor?
Correct Answer:
A
— The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
Explanation:
According to Article 159, before entering upon office, the Governor takes the oath before the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State or, in his/her absence, before the senior-most available Judge. This oath signifies the commitment to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution.
Question 66: Which of the following conditions is necessary for a person to continue as the Chief Minister of a State after appointment?
Correct Answer:
D
— He/She must become a member of the State Legislature within six months if not already a member.
Explanation:
Under Article 164(4), a person who is not a member of the State Legislature may be appointed as Chief Minister. However, such a person must become a member of either House of the State Legislature within six consecutive months; otherwise, he/she ceases to hold office.
Question 67: Which of the following statements regarding the Governor is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Governor is the constitutional head of the State.
Explanation:
According to the Indian Constitution, the Governor is the constitutional or nominal head of the State, while the real executive authority is exercised through the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. The Governor is appointed by the President and is not elected. This feature of the parliamentary system applies at both the Union and State levels, where the constitutional head and the real executive are distinct.
Question 68: According to the Constitution, who takes the final decision regarding the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a State?
Correct Answer:
D
— Parliament
Explanation:
Under Article 169 of the Constitution, the Legislative Assembly of a State may pass a resolution by a special majority recommending the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council. However, the Council can be created or abolished only through a law enacted by Parliament. Therefore, the final constitutional authority rests with Parliament.
Question 69: Which of the following is generally legislated upon by the State Legislature because it is a subject in the State List?
Correct Answer:
A
— Police
Explanation:
The State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution includes subjects such as Police, Public Order, Public Health, and Agriculture. Foreign Policy, Currency, and Defence are subjects in the Union List, on which only Parliament can legislate.
Question 70: The powers of the Governor to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly are classified under which category of powers?
Correct Answer:
D
— Legislative Powers
Explanation:
Under Article 174 of the Constitution, the Governor has the power to summon the House or Houses of the State Legislature, prorogue them, and dissolve the Legislative Assembly. These are classified as legislative powers because they relate directly to the functioning of the Legislature. These powers are generally exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
Question 71: The State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
Correct Answer:
D
— Legislative Assembly
Explanation:
According to Article 164(2), the State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. If the Assembly passes a no-confidence motion, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. This is a fundamental principle of the parliamentary system of government. No such collective responsibility exists towards the Legislative Council or the Governor.
Question 72: In which of the following States does a Legislative Council exist?
Correct Answer:
C
— Bihar
Explanation:
Bihar currently has a bicameral legislature consisting of a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. Legislative Councils exist only in certain States as provided under Article 168.
Question 73: Which House is constitutionally mandatory in every State Legislature?
Correct Answer:
A
— Legislative Assembly
Explanation:
According to the Constitution, every State must have a Legislative Assembly, whereas a Legislative Council exists only in certain States. States having both Houses are known as bicameral legislatures. Article 168 provides for this arrangement. Therefore, the Legislative Assembly is the essential and mandatory House of the State Legislature.
Question 74: Who appoints the Chief Minister?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Governor
Explanation:
According to Article 164 of the Constitution, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. Generally, the leader of the party or coalition that commands a majority in the Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister. In the absence of a clear majority, the Governor has a limited discretionary role.
Question 75: Who among the following is the real executive head of a State?
Correct Answer:
B
— Chief Minister
Explanation:
In the parliamentary system of government, the Governor is the nominal executive head, whereas the Chief Minister is the real executive head. According to Articles 163 and 164, the Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and is responsible for the actual administration of the State. The Governor generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The distinction between the nominal and real executive is a fundamental constitutional concept.
Question 76: What is the normal tenure of the Governor of a State?
Correct Answer:
C
— 5 years
Explanation:
According to Article 156, the Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he/she enters office. However, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and may be removed before the completion of the term.
Question 77: Who appoints the Governor of a State?
Correct Answer:
A
— The President
Explanation:
According to Article 155 of the Constitution, the Governor is appointed by the President. The Governor is the constitutional head of the State and is also regarded as the representative of the President. Although the Governor functions in the State, the appointment is not made by the State Government.
Question 78: Assertion (A): A Legislative Council can be established in a State only through a Constitutional Amendment. Reason (R): Under Article 169, Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council by an ordinary law if the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
A Legislative Council is not created or abolished through a Constitutional Amendment. Under Article 169 of the Constitution of India, Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council by an ordinary law, provided that the concerned State Legislative Assembly first passes a resolution by a special majority. Further, Article 169(3) specifically states that such a law shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct. Fact: A law made under Article 169 for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council is an ordinary law of Parliament and is not treated as a Constitutional Amendment.
Question 79: Assertion (A): The Chief Minister is regarded as the real executive head of the State Government. Reason (R): The Governor ordinarily acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Indian parliamentary system, the real executive power rests with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. The Governor ordinarily acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, except in matters where the Constitution grants discretionary powers to the Governor. This is why the Chief Minister is regarded as the real head of the State Government. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion. Fact: The Chief Minister is also referred to as the "Pivot of the State Administration."
Question 80: Assertion (A): The Legislative Council can reject a Money Bill. Reason (R): The role of the Legislative Council in relation to a Money Bill is merely advisory.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Legislative Council cannot reject a Money Bill. It may only make recommendations and must return the Bill within 14 days. The Legislative Assembly is not bound to accept those recommendations. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Article 198 governs this procedure. Fact: In matters relating to Money Bills, the position of the Legislative Assembly is highly powerful.
Question 81: Assertion (A): The legislative authority of the State Legislature over subjects in the State List is absolute and without exceptions. Reason (R): The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List under certain specified circumstances.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The State Legislature ordinarily legislates on State List subjects, but this power is not absolute. Parliament may legislate on such subjects under Articles 249, 250, 252 and 253. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Fact: Although the distribution of legislative powers in a federal system is generally rigid, certain constitutional exceptions have been provided.
Question 82: Assertion (A): The collective responsibility of the State Council of Ministers is not merely a political convention but a constitutional principle. Reason (R): Article 164[2] declares the Council of Ministers to be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Collective responsibility is a fundamental feature of the Indian parliamentary system of government. It is not merely a political convention but a constitutional obligation provided under Article 164(2). If the Legislative Assembly expresses no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. Therefore, the reason directly and fully explains the Assertion. Fact: Collective responsibility ensures cabinet unity and policy coordination.
Question 83: Assertion (A): All members of the Legislative Council are elected. Reason (R): In the composition of the Legislative Council, some members are nominated by the Governor.
Correct Answer:
B
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Article 171, not all members of the Legislative Council are elected. Some members are nominated by the Governor from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Fact: This nomination system was designed to incorporate expertise into the legislative process.
Question 84: Assertion (A): The Governor functions as a subordinate authority to the State Government while discharging his office. Reason (R): The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Governor is not subordinate to the State Government. Under Articles 155 and 156, the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the President's pleasure. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct.
Question 85: Assertion (A): The existence of a Legislative Council abolishes the legislative supremacy of the State Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): In the case of Ordinary Bills, the Legislative Council possesses only a suspensive power.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The establishment of a Legislative Council does not end the legislative predominance of the Legislative Assembly. The Council merely performs the role of reconsideration and delay. It may hold up an Ordinary Bill for a limited period but cannot block it permanently. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Article 197 provides a solution to legislative deadlocks between the two Houses at the State level. Fact: Unlike Parliament, there is no provision for a Joint Sitting in the States.
Question 86: Assertion (A): Every Bill reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President necessarily becomes law after the President's decision. Reason (R): The President possesses constitutional powers to grant assent, withhold assent, or return such a Bill for reconsideration.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because a Bill reserved for the President's consideration does not necessarily become law. Under Article 201, the President may grant assent, withhold assent, or return a non-Money Bill for reconsideration. Therefore, the reason is correct.
Question 87: Assertion (A): If the government's majority in the Legislative Assembly becomes doubtful, the floor of the House is considered the most appropriate constitutional forum to determine it. Reason (R): The test of parliamentary accountability is based on the confidence of the Legislative Assembly rather than the personal satisfaction of the Governor.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Both the Assertion and the reason are correct. Under the parliamentary system, the legitimacy of a government depends upon the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. The Supreme Court, particularly in the S.R. Bommai case and subsequent judgments, has consistently held that doubts regarding majority support must ordinarily be resolved through a floor test in the House rather than through the Governor's subjective assessment. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 88: Assertion (A): The existence of the State Council of Ministers depends upon the Chief Minister. Reason (R): Upon the resignation of the Chief Minister, the entire Council of Ministers ordinarily resigns.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and occupies a central position in the State executive. Since the Council of Ministers functions under the leadership of the Chief Minister, the resignation, death, or removal of the Chief Minister ordinarily results in the dissolution of the entire Council of Ministers. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Fact: The Chief Minister is often described as the “Keystone of the Cabinet Arch” because of his or her pivotal role in the functioning of the Council of Ministers.
Question 89: Assertion (A): The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is possible only upon the expiry of its term. Reason (R): On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly even before the expiry of its term.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is incorrect because a Legislative Assembly may be dissolved before the completion of its normal five-year term. Reason (R) is correct because the Governor may dissolve the Legislative Assembly before the expiry of its term, ordinarily on the advice of the Chief Minister. Hence, A is incorrect, but R is correct. Fact: Premature dissolution of the Legislative Assembly may occur due to political instability, loss of majority, or other constitutional circumstances.
Question 90: Assertion (A): It is always necessary for a National Emergency to be in operation for Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List. Reason (R): The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List in certain other special circumstances as well.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List not only during an Emergency but also under circumstances contemplated in Articles 249, 250, 252, and 253. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Fact: Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest by passing a resolution.
Question 91: Assertion (A): Ordinarily, the Governor acts on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. Reason (R): Under Article 163, the Governor enjoys discretionary powers only in certain limited matters.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Indian parliamentary system of government, the Governor ordinarily acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Article 163 confers discretionary powers only in certain specific situations. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 92: Assertion (A): The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a State is carried out by Parliament. Reason (R): The concerned State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution in this regard by a special majority.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 169, Parliament has the power to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a State by law. The concerned State Legislative Assembly must first pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority. Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. However, the Reason describes a constitutional prerequisite for Parliament to exercise this power and does not directly explain why the power is vested in Parliament. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Fact: A law enacted under Article 169 for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council is not deemed to be a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368.
Question 93: Assertion (A): The minimum age for membership of a Legislative Council is 25 years. Reason (R): The Constitution prescribes a higher minimum age for membership of the Legislative Council than for the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The minimum age for membership of a Legislative Council is 30 years, not 25 years. Therefore, Assertion (A) is incorrect. Reason (R) is correct because the Constitution prescribes a higher minimum age for membership of the Legislative Council (30 years) than for the Legislative Assembly (25 years). Hence, A is incorrect, but R is correct. Fact: Article 173 prescribes a minimum age of 25 years for membership of a Legislative Assembly and 30 years for membership of a Legislative Council.
Question 94: Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has no special constitutional authority in determining whether a Bill is a Money Bill. Reason (R): The final decision as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is made by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly plays a highly significant constitutional role in matters relating to a Money Bill. The final certification of a Bill as a Money Bill is made by the Speaker. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the reason is correct. Article 199 provides the definition of a Money Bill at the State level. Fact: The Speaker’s decision regarding a Money Bill carries significant constitutional consequences.
Question 95: Assertion (A): The Constitution does not prescribe any explicit time limit for the Governor to take a decision on a Bill under Article 200. Reason (R): Article 200 provides the Governor with options such as granting assent, returning the Bill for reconsideration, or reserving it for the consideration of the President.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 200 does not prescribe any definite time limit for the Governor, hence the Assertion is correct. The reason is also correct because the Governor has various constitutional options regarding a Bill. However, these options do not explain the absence of a time limit. Therefore, the reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Question 96: Assertion (A): The Legislative Council performs a federal representative role similar to that of the Rajya Sabha. Reason (R): The Legislative Council is the Upper House of the State Legislature.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is indeed the Upper House at the State level, but its function is not to protect the interests of States. It is a part of the legislative process of the concerned State. Federal representation of States is primarily provided through the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. Trap: Equating an “Upper House” with “federal representation” is often misleading.
Question 97: Assertion (A): If the Chief Minister does not become a member of the State Legislature within six months of appointment, he/she cannot continue in office thereafter. Reason (R): The Constitution permits the appointment of a non-legislator as Chief Minister, but this arrangement is not permanent.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 164(4), a person may be appointed as a Minister (including the Chief Minister) even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature. However, such a person must become a member of either House of the Legislature within six months. Failing this, he/she cannot continue in office. Therefore, both the Assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason provides the constitutional explanation of the Assertion. Fact: This provision establishes a balance between democratic accountability and political practicality.
Question 98: Assertion (A): The relationship between the Governor and the President serves as an important constitutional link in the Indian federal system. Reason (R): The Governor is appointed by the President.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155 and holds office during the pleasure of the President under Article 156. This institutional arrangement enables the Governor to function as an important constitutional link between the Union and the State. Therefore, both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A. Fact: Besides being the constitutional head of the State, the Governor also acts as a representative of the Union in certain matters.
Question 99: Assertion (A): If a No-Confidence Motion is passed in the Legislative Assembly, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. Reason (R): The State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
A No-Confidence Motion is linked to the concept of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers. According to Article 164(2), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. Therefore, if it loses the confidence of the House, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. The reason directly provides the constitutional explanation for the Assertion. Fact: A No-Confidence Motion is considered to be directed against the entire Council of Ministers and not against an individual Minister.
Question 100: Assertion (A): Parliament ordinarily has no power to legislate on matters included in the State List. Reason (R): The Constitution permits Parliament to legislate on State List subjects under certain special circumstances.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under the constitutional scheme, matters enumerated in the State List are ordinarily within the legislative domain of the States. Therefore, Parliament normally does not have the power to legislate on such subjects. However, the Constitution provides certain exceptions under which Parliament may legislate on State List matters, such as in the national interest (Article 249), during a National Emergency (Article 250), at the request of two or more States (Article 252), or for implementing international agreements (Article 253). Hence, both the Assertion and the reason are correct. However, the reason states an exception to the general rule and does not directly explain why Parliament ordinarily lacks such power. Therefore, both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 101: Assertion (A): It is mandatory for the Chief Minister to be a member of the Legislative Assembly at the time of appointment. Reason (R): A person who does not become a member of the State Legislature within six months cannot continue as a Minister.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
It is not mandatory for the Chief Minister to be a member of the Legislature at the time of appointment. A non-member may also be appointed as Chief Minister, provided that he or she becomes a member of the State Legislature within six months. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct, and Article 164(4) provides for this arrangement. Fact: The same rule applies to other Ministers as well.
Question 102: Assertion (A): The Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President. Reason (R): Certain categories of Bills are required or permitted by the Constitution to be reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 200, the Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President. In certain cases, such reservation is mandatory, while in others it is constitutionally permitted. Since the Constitution specifically requires or permits certain categories of Bills to be reserved for the President's consideration, both the Assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 103: Assertion (A): All members of the Legislative Council are elected through indirect elections. Reason (R): Some members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Under Article 171 of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Council consists of both elected and nominated members. While most members are elected through various forms of indirect elections, some members are nominated by the Governor from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct. Fact: The total strength of a Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the corresponding Legislative Assembly, and it cannot be less than 40 members. (Exception: the Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir before its reorganization had a different constitutional arrangement.)
Question 104: Assertion (A): The Constitution prescribes a six-year term for the Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): The normal term of the Legislative Assembly is five years unless it is dissolved earlier.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
According to Article 172, the normal term of the Legislative Assembly is five years, not six years. Hence, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because the Assembly may also be dissolved before the completion of its tenure. Fact: During a National Emergency, Parliament may extend the term of a Legislative Assembly by one year at a time, but not beyond six months after the Emergency has ceased to operate.
Question 105: Assertion (A): The Legislative Council can effectively veto an Ordinary Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): In the State Legislature, the Legislative Assembly enjoys final legislative supremacy over the Legislative Council.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Legislative Council cannot permanently block an Ordinary Bill. Under Article 197, it may delay an Ordinary Bill for a maximum of three months on the first occasion and for a maximum of one month when the Bill is sent again. Thereafter, a Bill passed again by the Legislative Assembly is deemed passed even without the approval of the Legislative Council. Hence, the Assertion is incorrect. On the other hand, the Legislative Assembly enjoys final legislative supremacy over the Legislative Council with respect to Ordinary Bills. Therefore, the reason is correct.
Question 106: Assertion (A): The advice of the State Council of Ministers is generally binding on the Governor. Reason (R): The Governor is the real executive head of the State.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under the parliamentary system of government, the Governor generally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, the real executive authority rests with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers, not with the Governor. The Governor is only the constitutional head of the State. Hence, the reason is incorrect. Articles 163 and 164 provide the constitutional basis for this arrangement. Elimination Technique: Whenever the term “real executive” appears, generally give preference to the Chief Minister/Council of Ministers.
Question 107: Assertion (A): If no political party secures a clear majority in the Legislative Assembly of a State, the Governor may exercise discretionary powers in appointing the Chief Minister. Reason (R): The Constitution does not prescribe a detailed procedure for the appointment of the Chief Minister and merely states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 164(1) merely provides that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor. However, the Constitution does not lay down a detailed procedure regarding whom to invite in the case of a hung Assembly. Therefore, the Governor may exercise limited discretionary powers and invite the person who is most likely to command the confidence of the House. Hence, both the Assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason appropriately explains the Assertion. Fact: The Supreme Court has, in various cases, regarded a floor test as the most reliable method for determining majority support.
Question 108: Assertion (A): The Legislative Assembly is the popular House of the State Legislature. Reason (R): Members of the Legislative Assembly are elected through direct elections.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Members of the Legislative Assembly are elected directly by the people; therefore, it is known as the popular or lower House of the State Legislature. Direct election is the basis of its democratic legitimacy. Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Fact: The normal term of the Legislative Assembly is five years unless it is dissolved earlier.
Question 109: Assertion (A): The State Legislature generally makes laws on subjects included in the State List. Reason (R): Article 246 of the Constitution grants the State Legislature exclusive power to make laws on matters enumerated in the State List, subject to constitutional provisions.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Article 246 distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States. It grants State Legislatures the exclusive authority to make laws on subjects enumerated in the State List, subject to certain constitutional exceptions. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 110: Assertion (A): The Governor is appointed by the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State. Reason (R): The Governor is appointed by the President.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Under Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President and not by the State Legislative Assembly. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct. Fact: In the federal framework, the Governor is regarded as a constitutional link between the Union and the State.
Question 111: Assertion (A): Prior to the Constitution [104th Amendment] Act, 2019, the Governor had the power to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): This provision was abolished by the Constitution [104th Amendment] Act, 2019.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Before the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2019, Article 333 empowered the Governor to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly if the community was not adequately represented. The 104th Amendment abolished this provision. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 112: Assertion (A): The Legislative Council is a permanent House of the State Legislature. Reason (R): The Legislative Council cannot be dissolved like the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
The Legislative Council is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved. One-third of its members retire every two years, and each member serves a term of six years. Therefore, the Reason constitutes the constitutional basis of the Assertion and correctly explains it.
Question 113: Assertion (A): A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the State Legislative Council. Reason (R): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 198, a State Money Bill can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly. For this reason, it cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. The Legislative Council can only make recommendations on a Money Bill and must return it within 14 days.
Question 114: Assertion (A): The existence of a Legislative Council is constitutionally mandatory in all States. Reason (R): The Constitution permits States to adopt either a unicameral or a bicameral legislature.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
Under Article 168, a Legislative Council is not mandatory in all States. Some States have only a Legislative Assembly, while others have both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is correct because the Constitution allows both unicameral and bicameral legislative arrangements in the States.
Question 115: Assertion (A): The State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. Reason (R): Members of the State Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Under Article 164(2), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly; hence, the Assertion is correct. Article 164(1) provides that Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor; therefore, the Reason is also correct. However, collective responsibility is based on the principle of parliamentary accountability and not on the Pleasure Doctrine. Hence, the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.
Question 116: Assertion (A): The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. Reason (R): The Chief Minister is elected directly by the people through a separate election.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor; therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, the Chief Minister is not directly elected by the people. Generally, the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister. Hence, the Reason is incorrect.
Question 117: Assertion (A): The Governor is the constitutional head of the State. Reason (R): The executive power of the State is vested in the Governor according to the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct. Article 153 provides for the office of the Governor in a State, and under Article 154, the executive power of the State is vested in the Governor. Although the real powers are exercised on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers, constitutionally the Governor remains the head of the State. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.