Practice important Union Government MCQs for UPSC Prelims. Cover President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Parliament, Money Bill, Finance Bill, Constitutional Amendments and other Indian Polity objective questions for exam preparation and revision.
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Union Government MCQ for UPSC Prelims | President, Prime Minister, Parliament & Constitutional Amendment Questions
Description
Practice important Union Government MCQs for UPSC Prelims. Cover President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Parliament, Money Bill, Finance Bill, Constitutional Amendments and other Indian Polity objective questions for exam preparation and revision.
Difficulty
Hard
Num Questions
175
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
120 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) In the federal framework of the Indian Constitution, a special amendment procedure has been provided to maintain a balance between Parliament and the States. (2) The requirement of State ratification for certain Constitutional Amendments is an expression of the federal principle. (3) The Constitutional Amendment process reflects both the rigid and flexible features of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution seeks to maintain a balance between federal and unitary elements. Certain amendments require ratification by the States, thereby safeguarding the federal principle. At the same time, some provisions may be amended by a simple majority, while others require a special majority, reflecting both rigidity and flexibility in the Constitution. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 2: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha provides institutional protection to Indian federalism. (2) The existence of the Rajya Sabha is solely for legislative reconsideration. (3) The Constitution has conferred certain special federal powers upon the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Through the representation of the States, the Rajya Sabha provides an institutional foundation to Indian federalism. It enjoys certain special federal powers under provisions such as Articles 249 and 312. Its role is not confined merely to legislative reconsideration; it also plays an important part in maintaining the federal balance. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 3: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The power to amend the Constitution is not unlimited. (2) The Basic Structure Doctrine imposes a constitutional limitation on Parliament’s amending power. (3) The objective of the Basic Structure Doctrine is to preserve the identity and core values of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to the Basic Structure Doctrine propounded by the Supreme Court, Parliament’s amending power is wide but not unlimited. Parliament cannot destroy the basic identity, foundational features, or core values of the Constitution. The doctrine plays an important role in preserving constitutional supremacy and democratic balance. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 4: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Speaker’s certification of a Money Bill carries constitutional significance. (2) Disputes relating to Money Bills have given rise to issues of constitutional interpretation and judicial review. (3) The concept of a Money Bill is intended to ensure the primacy of the Lok Sabha in financial matters.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Articles 109 and 110, the provisions relating to Money Bills grant the Lok Sabha a predominant role in financial matters. The Speaker’s certification is of considerable constitutional importance. In recent years, the classification of certain Bills as Money Bills has also raised issues relating to constitutional interpretation and judicial review. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 5: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Department-related Standing Committees assist in the technical and detailed scrutiny of Bills. (2) Parliamentary Committees enhance the expertise capacity of Parliament. (3) Meetings of Parliamentary Committees are generally not broadcast publicly.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Parliamentary Committees undertake detailed examination of complex legislative and administrative matters, thereby enhancing both the efficiency and expertise of Parliament. Committee meetings are generally held in confidence to facilitate free and detailed deliberations. For this reason, the committee system is often referred to as a “Mini Parliament.” Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 6: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers and individual responsibility of Ministers are distinct concepts. (2) A Minister may continue in office even after losing the confidence of the Prime Minister. (3) Individual responsibility of Ministers is related to holding office during the pleasure of the President.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Collective responsibility refers to the joint responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha, whereas individual responsibility concerns the position of an individual Minister. In practice, if a Minister loses the confidence of the Prime Minister, he must resign. Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, although this power is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 7: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The office of the Prime Minister under the Indian Constitution is inspired by the British tradition. (2) The Constitution defines the Prime Minister explicitly as the “Head of the Government.” (3) The central role of the Prime Minister has evolved through both constitutional provisions and parliamentary practice.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Indian parliamentary system is inspired by the British model, and the Prime Minister is its central figure. The Constitution refers to the Prime Minister but does not explicitly define him as the “Head of the Government.” His actual position has evolved through constitutional provisions, parliamentary conventions, political leadership, and party organization. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 8: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President’s pardoning power introduces a humanitarian element into the criminal justice system. (2) The pardoning power functions as an additional constitutional safeguard beyond the judicial process. (3) When the President grants a pardon, the original judicial decision automatically becomes void.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Under Article 72, the purpose of the pardoning power is to incorporate humanitarian, social, and public-policy considerations into the justice system. It also serves as a constitutional safeguard in addition to the judicial process. However, a pardon does not nullify the judicial decision; it only modifies the effect of the punishment. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 9: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Re-promulgation of Ordinances repeatedly has been considered consistent with the spirit of the Constitution. (2) The Supreme Court has criticized the practice of re-promulgating Ordinances. (3) Ordinance-making power should not be used as a substitute for the regular legislative process.
Correct Answer:
C
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
In decisions including D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court criticized the repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances as being contrary to the spirit of the Constitution. Ordinance-making power is an extraordinary power and cannot be used to replace the regular legislative process. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 10: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) When the office of the President falls vacant, the Vice-President acts as President until the election of a new President, which must be held within six months from the date of vacancy. (2) In the event of a vacancy in the office of the President, it is mandatory to conduct the election of a new President within six months. (3) While acting as President, the Vice-President may exercise all the constitutional powers of the President.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Articles 65 and 62, when the office of the President falls vacant, the Vice-President acts as President, and a new President must be elected within six months. During this period, the Vice-President may exercise all the constitutional powers, immunities, and privileges of the President. This arrangement ensures continuity in the executive. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 11: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha is an important institutional component of the Indian federal system. (2) The consent of the Rajya Sabha is necessary for the passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills. (3) The Rajya Sabha serves as a constitutional forum for the expression of the interests of the States.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is an important institutional pillar of Indian federalism because it represents the States. Its consent is mandatory for the passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills, and there is no provision for a joint sitting in such matters. The Rajya Sabha serves as a constitutional forum for expressing the interests of the States and plays a significant role in maintaining the federal balance. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 12: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The power to amend the Constitution is considered distinct from Parliament’s ordinary legislative power. (2) While amending the Constitution, Parliament performs a role similar to that of a constituent body. (3) A Constitutional Amendment Act is the result of the exercise of constituent power, not ordinary legislative power.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
While amending the Constitution, Parliament exercises constituent power rather than its ordinary legislative power. Consequently, the procedure, required majority, and constitutional effects of an amendment differ from those of ordinary legislation. A Constitutional Amendment Act is distinct from an ordinary Act in both nature and effect. The Supreme Court has also recognized the unique nature of the constituent power. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 13: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (2) Prior recommendation of the President is necessary for the introduction of a Money Bill. (3) The Rajya Sabha may amend a Money Bill and return it with binding effect.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Under Articles 109 and 110, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha may only make recommendations regarding a Money Bill; its amendments are not binding. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 14: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Department-related Standing Committees examine the functioning of Ministries. (2) The reports of these Committees are generally advisory in nature. (3) The recommendations of the Committees are binding upon the Government in the same manner as judicial orders.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Department-related Standing Committees examine the functioning of Ministries, Demands for Grants, and Bills. Their reports are presented to Parliament and are recommendatory in nature. The Government is not legally bound to implement them as it would be bound by judicial orders. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 15: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. (2) The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved. (3) One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 83, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is never dissolved. Its members have a term of six years, and approximately one-third retire every two years. This arrangement ensures continuity and institutional stability in the House. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 16: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Constitution recognizes all Ministers simply as Ministers, but in practice the roles of Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State differ. (2) The Cabinet determines the major policies of the Government. (3) The Cabinet is the inner and powerful core group of the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Constitution does not formally classify Ministers into categories; however, in practice the roles of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers differ. The Cabinet is the real decision-making center of the Government and determines major policies. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 17: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Prime Minister is the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the President. (2) Article 78 imposes a duty upon the Prime Minister to furnish information to the President. (3) The President may seek information from the Prime Minister regarding any decision of the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 78 makes the Prime Minister the constitutional link between the President and the Council of Ministers. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to keep the President informed about decisions of the Council of Ministers and administrative affairs. The President may seek any necessary information and may also require a matter to be placed before the Council of Ministers for consideration. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 18: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court decides disputes relating to the election of the Vice-President. (2) State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the election of the Vice-President. (3) The procedure for the removal of the Vice-President is not the same as the impeachment of the President.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 71, all doubts and disputes relating to the election of the Vice-President are decided by the Supreme Court. Only members of both Houses of Parliament participate in the election of the Vice-President; State Legislative Assemblies have no role in it. The procedure for removing the Vice-President differs from the impeachment of the President. The President is removed through impeachment for violation of the Constitution, whereas the Vice-President is removed under Article 67(b) by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 19: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The dissolution of the Lok Sabha by the President is a power exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. (2) The President may dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time according to his own will. (3) In a parliamentary system of government, the dissolution of the Lok Sabha is linked to the process of political accountability.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President, but ordinarily this is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President does not possess an unfettered power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. In a parliamentary democracy, dissolution is connected with the renewal of the popular mandate and political accountability. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 20: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President’s Ordinance-making power can be exercised only when immediate legislative action is necessary. (2) The President promulgates an Ordinance on the basis of his personal satisfaction. (3) An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act passed by Parliament.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 123, an Ordinance may be promulgated only when Parliament is not in session and immediate legislative action is necessary. The President does not act on his personal satisfaction but on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Supreme Court has clarified that an Ordinance has the same force and effect as a law enacted by Parliament, although its nature is temporary. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 21: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Constitutional Amendment process is neither wholly rigid nor wholly flexible. (2) Certain constitutional provisions may be altered by a simple majority. (3) Ratification by States is required for certain amendments.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The amendment process of the Indian Constitution is regarded as having a mixed character because it contains elements of both flexibility and rigidity. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority, while most amendments require a special majority. Amendments concerning matters of federal significance also require ratification by at least half of the States. Therefore, the Indian Constitution is considered neither as flexible as the British Constitution nor as rigid as the American Constitution. Hence, all three statements are correct.
Question 22: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Parliament cannot amend the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (2) The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court. (3) The Basic Structure Doctrine is explicitly written in the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Supreme Court propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973). According to this doctrine, Parliament may amend the Constitution extensively but cannot destroy or alter its Basic Structure. The doctrine is not explicitly written in the Constitution; it evolved through judicial interpretation. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 23: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Finance Bill and Money Bill are synonymous terms. (2) Every Money Bill is a Finance Bill. (3) Every Finance Bill is not a Money Bill.
Correct Answer:
C
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
A Money Bill is a special category of Financial Bill. Every Money Bill is necessarily a Finance Bill, but not every Finance Bill is a Money Bill. Some Finance Bills contain matters in addition to those specified in Article 110 and are therefore not regarded as Money Bills. Hence, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 24: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Committee System aims to ensure more detailed scrutiny of Bills. (2) Referring a Bill to a Committee is mandatory in every case. (3) Parliamentary Committees help reduce the workload of the House.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Parliamentary Committees undertake detailed and technical examination of Bills and administrative matters. This enhances the effectiveness of Parliament and also reduces the workload of the House. However, referring every Bill to a Committee is not mandatory; it depends upon the discretion of the House or the Presiding Officer. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 25: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Zero Hour is mentioned in the Constitution. (2) Question Hour is an important instrument for ensuring executive accountability in Parliament. (3) Zero Hour evolved from Indian parliamentary practice.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Question Hour is a highly effective mechanism for holding the executive accountable in Parliament. On the other hand, Zero Hour was not originally mentioned in the Constitution or parliamentary rules; it evolved through Indian parliamentary practice. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 26: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The concept of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is based on responsibility to the Lok Sabha. (2) Collective responsibility means that the Council of Ministers functions as a single unit. (3) If the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, only the concerned Minister is required to resign.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that the Council functions as a unified body and all Ministers share collective responsibility for its decisions. If the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, the entire Council of Ministers must resign, not merely an individual Minister. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 27: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. (2) The Constitution gives the President complete freedom to appoint any person as Prime Minister. (3) According to parliamentary convention, the Prime Minister is the person capable of commanding the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 75, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President. However, the President does not enjoy absolute and unfettered discretion; he must appoint the person capable of securing majority support in the Lok Sabha. This is a fundamental principle of the parliamentary system. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 28: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President’s pardoning power does not nullify a judicial decision but alters the effect of the punishment. (2) The purpose of the pardoning power is only to correct judicial errors. (3) While considering a mercy petition, humanitarian, social, and public-interest considerations may also be taken into account.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The President’s pardoning power does not invalidate the court’s decision; rather, it may pardon, commute, remit, suspend, or otherwise modify the punishment. Its purpose is not confined to correcting judicial errors but also extends to humanitarian, social, diplomatic, and public-interest considerations. This is why the executive is vested with this special constitutional power. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 29: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President’s power to promulgate Ordinances is a permanent substitute for Parliament’s legislative power. (2) An Ordinance can be promulgated only when neither House of Parliament is in session. (3) An Ordinance must be approved within six weeks of the reassembly of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 123, the Ordinance-making power is an extraordinary and temporary legislative power, not a permanent substitute for Parliament’s legislative authority. An Ordinance may be promulgated only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and circumstances exist that require immediate legislative action. It ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved earlier by Parliament. Therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.
Question 30: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court has held that once the election of the President is completed, disputes relating to it can be decided only by the Supreme Court. (2) Disputes relating to the Presidential election can be raised only through an election petition presented before the Supreme Court. (3) The decision of the Supreme Court regarding disputes related to the Presidential election is final.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President and Vice-President are decided by the Supreme Court. Under the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, such disputes are raised through election petitions before the Supreme Court. The decision of the Supreme Court is final. Further, even if the election of the President is later declared void, the acts performed by him while in office remain valid. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 31: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Constitution grants certain special powers to the Rajya Sabha that are not available to the Lok Sabha. (2) Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may authorize Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List in the national interest. (3) A resolution regarding the creation of All India Services can be passed only by the Rajya Sabha through a special majority.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha enjoys certain distinctive federal powers. Under Article 249, it may authorize Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List in the national interest. Similarly, under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha has a special role in the creation of new All India Services. These powers underline the federal character of the Rajya Sabha and are not available to the Lok Sabha. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 32: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The absence of a joint sitting for a Constitutional Amendment Bill may effectively give the Rajya Sabha a veto-like position. (2) The constitutional status of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha is equal with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bills. (3) The Constitutional Amendment process contributes to the protection of Indian federalism.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills; therefore, rejection by either House can block the Bill. Consequently, the role of the Rajya Sabha becomes extremely significant. Both Houses enjoy equal status in matters of Constitutional Amendment. Additionally, the requirement of ratification by States for certain amendments safeguards the federal balance and Indian federalism. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 33: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Whether a Bill is a Money Bill is completely beyond judicial review. (2) The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha regarding a Money Bill is constitutionally final. (3) The Supreme Court has accepted the possibility of limited judicial review in certain Money Bill cases.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 110(3), the Speaker’s decision is regarded as final. However, under the principle of constitutional supremacy, the Supreme Court has indicated in certain cases that limited judicial review may be possible where there is a clear violation of constitutional provisions. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct. This issue has gained particular significance in recent constitutional debates.
Question 34: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The Estimates Committee suggests measures for economy and efficiency in public expenditure. (2) The Public Accounts Committee examines whether the expenditure of funds sanctioned by Parliament was lawful. (3) The Committee on Public Undertakings reviews the policy-making decisions of all public enterprises.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Estimates Committee suggests measures to improve economy and efficiency in administration. The Public Accounts Committee examines whether funds sanctioned by Parliament have been spent lawfully and regularly. The Committee on Public Undertakings reviews the performance of public enterprises but does not examine their policy-making decisions. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 35: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) Cabinet Committees are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. (2) Cabinet Committees promote specialization and quick decision-making in governance. (3) All Cabinet Committees are permanent in nature.
Correct Answer:
C
— 2 only
Explanation:
Cabinet Committees are not constitutional bodies; they are institutional arrangements created by the executive. Their purpose is to ensure specialized deliberation and quick decision-making on complex administrative matters. Some committees are permanent, while others are constituted on an ad hoc basis. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct, while Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
Question 36: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The actual constitutional position of the Prime Minister is determined not only by the text of the Constitution but also by parliamentary conventions. (2) In coalition governments, the effectiveness of the Prime Minister may be relatively limited. (3) An overwhelming majority in the Lok Sabha can strengthen the political position of the Prime Minister.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The role of the Prime Minister is shaped not only by constitutional provisions but also by party structures, parliamentary conventions, coalition politics, and leadership qualities. In coalition governments, the presence of allied parties may relatively limit the Prime Minister’s autonomy, whereas a clear majority strengthens the Prime Minister’s position. This is an excellent example of the interaction between constitutional law and political practice. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 37: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) While acting as President, the Vice-President does not perform the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (2) While acting as President, the Vice-President enjoys all the powers of the President. (3) During the period of acting as President, the Vice-President receives the salary and allowances of the President.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
When the Vice-President acts as President due to a vacancy or inability of the President, he does not perform the functions of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. During that period, he enjoys all the constitutional powers, immunities, salary, and allowances of the President. This arrangement ensures continuity in the office of the President. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 38: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) In the impeachment process of the President, the House that does not prefer the charge investigates or causes the charges to be investigated. (2) The President may be impeached on grounds other than violation of the Constitution. (3) The Constitution does not provide a clear definition of the term “violation of the Constitution.”
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
According to Article 61, the President may be impeached only for violation of the Constitution. One House prefers the charge, while the other House investigates or causes the charges to be investigated. The Constitution does not define the term “violation of the Constitution,” leaving its interpretation dependent upon political and constitutional contexts. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 39: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President’s pardoning power is completely beyond judicial review. (2) The Supreme Court has held that the pardoning power cannot be exercised arbitrarily. (3) The President is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers while deciding a mercy petition.
Correct Answer:
C
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Under Article 72, the President’s pardoning power is extensive, but it is not completely beyond judicial review. The Supreme Court has clarified in various cases that a pardon order may be reviewed on grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness, irrelevant considerations, or serious procedural irregularities. The President also acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in this matter. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 40: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The President acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers has been regarded as an important element of the parliamentary system of government, which forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. (2) The President can return the advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration indefinitely. (3) After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the President has the right to return the advice of the Council of Ministers once for reconsideration.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, while the 44th Constitutional Amendment added the provision that the President may return such advice once for reconsideration. If the Council of Ministers reiterates the same advice, the President is bound to accept it. Therefore, the President does not have the power to return the advice indefinitely. The Supreme Court has regarded the parliamentary system of government and the primacy of the Council of Ministers as consistent with the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 41: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. (2) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha enjoy equal powers with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bills. (3) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha participate in the election of the President.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill, and its role in such matters is limited. In the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha enjoy equal powers, and neither House has precedence over the other. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament participate in the election of the President, including the elected members of the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. (2) The prior recommendation of the President is not required for passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (3) There is no provision for a joint sitting on a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. The prior recommendation of the President is not required for its introduction. Further, there is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills. If the required majority is not secured in either House, the Bill is not deemed to have been passed. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The definition of a Money Bill is provided under Article 110 of the Constitution. (2) The final authority to certify a Bill as a Money Bill rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (3) The Rajya Sabha may only make recommendations on a Money Bill, which are not binding on the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 110 provides the definition of a Money Bill. The final decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill is taken by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can neither reject a Money Bill nor make binding amendments to it; it may only make recommendations. Therefore, its role is advisory in nature. All three statements are correct.
Question 44: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha is represented in the Public Accounts Committee. (2) The Rajya Sabha is not represented in the Estimates Committee. (3) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members are included in the Committee on Public Undertakings.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Both the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings include members from the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha. In contrast, the Estimates Committee is a committee exclusively of the Lok Sabha. This distinction is important for understanding the structure of parliamentary financial committees. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 45: Which of the following statements most accurately expresses the relationship between the parliamentary system of government and the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Correct Answer:
A
— Collective responsibility is the fundamental cornerstone of the parliamentary system of government.
Explanation:
The basic principle of the parliamentary system is that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This arrangement keeps the executive under democratic control. If a no-confidence motion is passed, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. Therefore, collective responsibility is regarded as the cornerstone of the parliamentary system.
Question 46: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Upon the death of the Prime Minister, the entire Council of Ministers is deemed to have ceased to exist. (2) The resignation of an individual Minister does not automatically terminate the entire Council of Ministers. (3) The Prime Minister is regarded as the centre of unity of the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and the centre of its unity. Upon the death, resignation, or departure from office of the Prime Minister, the entire Council of Ministers is deemed to cease to exist because it functions under his leadership. On the other hand, the resignation of an individual Minister does not terminate the Council of Ministers. This reflects the central constitutional position of the Prime Minister. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 47: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha. (2) The resolution must be passed by a majority of the then total membership of the Rajya Sabha. (3) The Vice-President cannot be removed without the concurrence of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 67, a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha. It must be passed by a majority of the then total membership of the Rajya Sabha and subsequently approved by the Lok Sabha. Therefore, all three statements are correct. This procedure is distinct from and comparatively simpler than the impeachment of the President. A notice of at least 14 days is required before moving the resolution. After its passage in the Rajya Sabha, the concurrence of the Lok Sabha is mandatory. The President’s assent is not required.
Question 48: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the impeachment of the President? (1) Impeachment may be initiated in either House of Parliament. (2) A written notice of at least 14 days is required before moving the charge. (3) The President may appear in person and defend himself during the investigation.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 61, impeachment proceedings against the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. A written notice of at least 14 days is required before moving the motion. During the investigation, the President has the right to appear in person or through a representative and defend himself. This provides constitutional protection in accordance with the principles of natural justice. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 49: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) If Parliament re-passes an Ordinary Bill returned by the President, the President is bound to give assent. (2) The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration. (3) The President may also return a Constitutional Amendment Bill for reconsideration.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The President may return an Ordinary Bill for reconsideration. However, if Parliament passes it again, the President is bound to give assent. A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration. In the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, the President has no power to return it for reconsideration; once duly passed by Parliament, assent is mandatory. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The objective of the single transferable vote system used in the Presidential election is to ensure broad support for the elected President. (2) In the Presidential election, a voter can vote for only one candidate. (3) In the Presidential election, votes are counted on the basis of preferences.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Presidential election is conducted through the single transferable vote system, under which voters indicate candidates in order of preference. Votes are counted on the basis of these preferences, ensuring that the elected President enjoys broad support. A voter is not restricted to voting for only one candidate and may indicate preferences for multiple candidates. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 51: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha was constituted primarily to reflect the federal principle. (2) The Rajya Sabha possesses powers equal to those of the Lok Sabha in respect of all types of Bills. (3) In the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills, the position of the Rajya Sabha is equal to that of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha represents the States in the federal system and thus reflects the federal principle. Its powers are inferior to those of the Lok Sabha in the case of Money Bills; therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect. However, in relation to Constitutional Amendment Bills, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha enjoy equal powers, and neither House has precedence over the other. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 52: With reference to the Constitutional Amendment process, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A Constitutional Amendment Bill cannot be introduced in a State Legislature. (2) There is no provision for a joint sitting on a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (3) If the required States do not ratify the amendment, it cannot become effective.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced only in Parliament; State Legislatures cannot initiate such amendments. There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills. Amendments requiring State ratification cannot become effective unless approved by at least one-half of the States. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 53: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A Money Bill can relate only to matters specified in Article 110. (2) If a Bill contains important matters other than those specified in Article 110, it shall not be regarded as a Money Bill. (3) The final decision as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill is taken by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
According to Article 110, a Money Bill must relate exclusively to matters specified therein, such as taxation and the Consolidated Fund of India. If a Bill includes other independent and substantial matters, it cannot be regarded as a Money Bill. The final decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 54: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is traditionally selected from the Opposition. (2) The Public Accounts Committee examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. (3) The Public Accounts Committee can issue binding orders like a judicial body.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee is an important financial committee of Parliament. Its Chairperson is traditionally chosen from the Opposition to ensure more effective financial oversight. The Committee examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. However, it does not possess the power to issue binding orders like a court; it only submits reports and recommendations. The Committee consists of 22 members—15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. By convention, since 1967, the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee has been chosen from the Opposition.
Question 55: Which of the following statements is the logical consequence of the concept of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
Correct Answer:
D
— All Ministers are expected to publicly support the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Explanation:
The principle of collective responsibility is based on the unity and secrecy of the Council of Ministers. If a Minister publicly dissents from the decisions of the Council of Ministers, he is generally expected to resign. If a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. Therefore, Option D is the most appropriate consequence of this principle.
Question 56: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The office of the Prime Minister is expressly provided for in the Constitution. (2) The Constitution provides a detailed description of the powers of the Prime Minister. (3) The actual powers of the Prime Minister are also influenced by parliamentary conventions and political circumstances.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Constitution mentions the office of the Prime Minister, and important provisions relating to it are contained in Articles 74, 75, and 78. However, it does not provide a detailed description of all the powers of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister’s actual influence is also shaped by factors such as majority support in the Lok Sabha, party position, coalition politics, and political leadership. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 57: With reference to the election of the Vice-President and the election of the President, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Both are elected through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. (2) Nominated members of Parliament vote in both elections. (3) State Legislative Assemblies participate in both elections.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1
Explanation:
Both the President and the Vice-President are elected through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. However, nominated members of Parliament do not vote in the election of the President, whereas they do vote in the election of the Vice-President. Similarly, State Legislative Assemblies participate in the election of the President but not in the election of the Vice-President. Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
Question 58: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The President’s pardoning power is not confined to death sentence cases. (2) The President can exercise pardoning power in respect of punishments awarded by military courts as well. (3) Both the President and the Governor can grant a complete pardon in cases of death sentence.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
Under Article 72, the President’s pardoning power is extensive and is not limited to death sentence cases. He can also intervene in cases involving punishments awarded by military courts and under Union laws. The Governor enjoys certain similar powers under Article 161, but only the President can grant a complete pardon in a death sentence case. The Governor may only suspend, remit, or commute the sentence. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 59: In which of the following situations can the President play a relatively more active discretionary role?
Correct Answer:
D
— When no party secures a clear majority after a general election.
Explanation:
The President normally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in the case of a hung Lok Sabha, his role becomes relatively more significant in appointing the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President must determine which leader is most likely to command the confidence of the House. In matters relating to Money Bills, Ordinances, or situations involving a clear majority, the President’s independent role remains extremely limited.
Question 60: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The election of the President reflects both the federal principle and the democratic principle. (2) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies participate in the election of the President, but members of Legislative Councils do not. (3) Every State enjoys equal representation in the election of the President.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The election of the President is a blend of federal and democratic elements because both Parliament and the States are represented in the electoral process. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies form part of the electoral college, whereas members of Legislative Councils do not participate. Every State does not receive equal representation; representation is determined on the basis of population and the number of elected MLAs. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 61: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A joint sitting may be convened if there is a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (2) The President is bound to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (3) Every amendment of the Constitution is not necessarily made under the procedure prescribed in Article 368.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill; therefore Statement (1) is incorrect. After the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, the President is bound to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed under Article 368; hence Statement (2) is correct. Certain provisions of the Constitution may be amended by a simple majority of Parliament and are not treated as amendments under Article 368. Therefore Statement (3) is also correct. Hence, the correct answer is C (Only 2 and 3).
Question 62: Which of the following subjects requires, for constitutional amendment, not only a special majority in Parliament but also ratification by at least one-half of the States?
Correct Answer:
A
— The procedure for the election of the President
Explanation:
Under Article 368, certain constitutional amendments require federal consent. Amendments relating to the election of the President, powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Union–State legislative relations, and representation of States in Parliament require ratification by at least one-half of the States in addition to a special majority in Parliament. Matters such as citizenship, salaries and allowances, or House rules do not fall within this category.
Question 63: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. (2) The Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha is bound to accept such amendments. (3) If the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The role of the Rajya Sabha in relation to a Money Bill is limited. It cannot reject the Bill and may only make recommendations. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept these recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 64: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Council of Ministers and the Cabinet are synonymous terms. (2) Every Cabinet Minister is a member of the Council of Ministers. (3) Every member of the Council of Ministers is not necessarily a member of the Cabinet.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is a broader body, whereas the Cabinet is its smaller and more powerful inner group. Every Cabinet Minister is a member of the Council of Ministers, but not all Ministers are part of the Cabinet. Ministers of State and other Ministers may be members of the Council of Ministers without being members of the Cabinet. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 65: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A person not being a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha is not disqualified from being appointed as a Minister. (2) Such a person may remain a Minister for six months. (3) If he does not become a member of Parliament within six months, he must resign from the office of Minister.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 75(5), a person who is not a member of Parliament may still be appointed as a Minister. However, such a person must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months; otherwise, he cannot continue as a Minister. This provision provides flexibility to include experts in the Council of Ministers. Several Prime Ministers and Ministers in India have assumed office before becoming members of Parliament.
Question 66: Which of the following statements most appropriately expresses the constitutional position of the Prime Minister?
Correct Answer:
C
— He is the head of the Council of Ministers and the centre of the real executive.
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the central pillar of the Indian governmental system. He is the head of the Council of Ministers, the leader of the government, and the centre of the real executive. Articles 74, 75, and 78 define the constitutional role of the Prime Minister. He plays a decisive role in the formation of the Council of Ministers, policy-making, administrative coordination, and advising the President. Hence, he is often referred to as the “pivot of the government.”
Question 67: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) State Legislative Assemblies have no role in the election of the Vice-President. (2) Nominated members of Parliament can vote in the election of the Vice-President. (3) The Vice-President is also elected through the system of the single transferable vote.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
According to Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. Nominated members also participate in this election, whereas State Legislative Assemblies have no role. The election is conducted through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Question 68: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) An impeachment motion against the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. (2) The impeachment motion must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. (3) The impeachment of the President is investigated by the Supreme Court.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
According to Article 61, impeachment proceedings against the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. Before introducing the motion, a written notice of at least 14 days and signatures of not less than one-fourth of the total membership of the House are required. Both the House preferring the charge and the other House, after investigation, must pass the motion by a majority of not less than two-thirds of their total membership. The investigation is not conducted by the Supreme Court; the other House conducts or causes the investigation to be conducted. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 69: With reference to the veto powers of the President, which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Absolute Veto – Complete refusal to give assent to a Bill (2) Suspensive Veto – Returning a Bill for reconsideration (3) Pocket Veto – Keeping a Bill pending for an indefinite period
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The President of India possesses powers such as the Absolute Veto, Suspensive Veto, and Pocket Veto. Under the Absolute Veto, the President may refuse assent to a Bill. Under the Suspensive Veto, the Bill may be returned for reconsideration. Under the Pocket Veto, the President may keep the Bill pending without taking any decision on it. Although the Constitution does not expressly mention the Pocket Veto, its validity has been established through constitutional interpretation and practice. The Suspensive Veto is not applicable to Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills.
Question 70: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) In the election of the President, the value of the vote of an MLA of a State is based on the population of that State and the number of elected members of its Legislative Assembly. (2) The value of the vote of each Member of Parliament is determined according to the population of different States. (3) The election of the President is conducted through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Article 55 seeks to ensure balanced representation between the Union and the States in the election of the President. The value of an MLA’s vote is determined on the basis of the population of the concerned State and the number of elected members of its Legislative Assembly. The value of the vote of Members of Parliament is the same for all elected MPs and is not determined separately for each State. The President is elected through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 71: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Rajya Sabha represents the units of the Union. (2) The Lok Sabha directly represents the people. (3) The bicameral structure of Parliament strengthens the federal principle.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is known as the Council of States and represents the constituent units of the Union, namely the States and certain Union Territories. The Lok Sabha is a directly elected House and represents the people. The bicameral structure of Parliament promotes federal balance, legislative reconsideration, and broader representation. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 72: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Prior recommendation of the President is not required for a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (2) The President can exercise a veto over a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (3) A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Prior recommendation of the President is not required for the introduction of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, and it may be introduced in either House of Parliament. Under Article 368, once a Constitutional Amendment Bill has been duly passed by Parliament, the President is bound to give assent and cannot exercise a veto. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 73: Which of the following statements regarding a Money Bill is/are correct? (1) It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (2) The Rajya Sabha can withhold it for a maximum period of 14 days. (3) There is a provision for a joint sitting on it.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject it and may retain it for a maximum period of 14 days. If it is not returned within that period, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Lok Sabha. There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of a Money Bill. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 74: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (1) Public Accounts Committee – Parliament (2) Estimates Committee – Lok Sabha only (3) Committee on Public Undertakings – Parliament
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings consist of members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha and are therefore parliamentary committees. The Estimates Committee is a committee of the Lok Sabha alone, and the Rajya Sabha has no representation in it. Hence, all three pairs are correctly matched.
Question 75: Which of the following is not a feature of the Parliamentary System of Government?
Correct Answer:
D
— Fixed tenure of the executive
Explanation:
The major features of the parliamentary system include collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers, distinction between the real and nominal executive, and a close relationship between the executive and the legislature. In contrast, a fixed tenure of the executive is a feature of the presidential system. In India, the tenure of the Council of Ministers depends on the confidence of the Lok Sabha and is therefore not considered fixed.
Question 76: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Prime Minister presides over meetings of the Council of Ministers. (2) The Prime Minister plays an important role in the allocation of portfolios among Ministers. (3) The Prime Minister may recommend to the President the resignation or removal of a Minister.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the central figure in the Indian system of government. He presides over meetings of the Council of Ministers, allocates portfolios among Ministers, and may advise the President to remove a Minister. In practice, if a Minister refuses to resign after being asked by the Prime Minister, the President may remove that Minister on the advice of the Prime Minister. For this reason, the Prime Minister is often described as the “keystone of the Cabinet arch.”
Question 77: Which of the following statements regarding the procedure for the removal of the Vice-President is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— The resolution originates in the Rajya Sabha and is approved by the Lok Sabha.
Explanation:
The procedure for the removal of the Vice-President is provided under Article 67 of the Constitution. The Vice-President is not removed through impeachment. A resolution for removal must originate in the Rajya Sabha and be passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. It must subsequently be approved by the Lok Sabha. The President has no unilateral power to remove the Vice-President. This procedure differs from the impeachment process of the President.
Question 78: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The President may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court. (2) The advisory opinion given by the Supreme Court is binding on the President. (3) This power is related to Article 143 of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 143, the President may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on a question of law or a matter of public importance. The Supreme Court may provide its opinion, but such opinion is not binding on the President. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect. This power is an important example of constitutional cooperation between the judiciary and the executive.
Question 79: Which of the following Bills cannot be introduced in Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President? (1) Money Bill (2) Bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India (3) Bill relating to alteration of the area of a State
Correct Answer:
C
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
A Money Bill can be introduced only on the prior recommendation of the President. Under Article 117, a Financial Bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India cannot be introduced without the President’s prior recommendation. Similarly, under Article 3, a Bill relating to the alteration of the area, boundaries, or name of a State can be introduced in Parliament only on the President’s recommendation. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Question 80: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The value of the vote of each elected Member of Parliament is the same in the Presidential election. (2) The value of the vote of each elected Member of the Legislative Assembly is the same across all States in the Presidential election. (3) The principle of population-based representation among States is followed in the Presidential election.
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Article 55 seeks to ensure uniformity of representation among the States and parity between the Union and the States in the Presidential election. The value of the vote of each elected Member of Parliament is the same. However, the value of the vote of an elected MLA varies from State to State based on the population of the State and the number of elected members in its Legislative Assembly. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 81: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved. (2) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved. (3) One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Lok Sabha is a temporary House and may be dissolved by the President. In contrast, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is never dissolved. To ensure continuity, one-third of its members retire every two years, and each member serves a term of six years. This arrangement ensures institutional stability within the federal framework and is a key feature of India’s bicameral Parliament.
Question 82: Which of the following statements regarding the Constitutional Amendment process is/are correct? (1) A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. (2) There is a provision for a joint sitting of both Houses on a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (3) Ratification by the States is required for certain amendments.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. There is no provision for a joint sitting in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill; if the Bill is not passed by either House, it lapses. Ratification by the States is required for certain amendments relating to subjects such as the election of the President, Union-State relations, and the judiciary. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 83: Which of the following statements regarding Money Bills and Financial Bills is/are correct? (1) Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill. (2) Every Financial Bill is a Money Bill. (3) The powers of the Rajya Sabha with respect to a Money Bill are limited.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
A Money Bill is a special category of Financial Bill; therefore, every Money Bill is a Financial Bill, but every Financial Bill is not a Money Bill. In the case of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations and must return it within 14 days. The Rajya Sabha has comparatively wider powers regarding Financial Bills.
Question 84: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Public Accounts Committee – Examination of government expenditure and audit (2) Estimates Committee – Examination of the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (3) Committee on Public Undertakings – Review of public sector undertakings
Correct Answer:
A
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the appropriation accounts, finance accounts, and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), thereby scrutinizing government expenditure and ensuring financial accountability. The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) examines the reports and accounts of public sector undertakings and evaluates their efficiency and performance. The Estimates Committee examines budget estimates and suggests improvements in economy, efficiency, and administrative reforms. It does not examine the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General. Therefore, Pair 2 is incorrect, while Pairs 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 85: Which of the following best expresses the principle of Collective Responsibility?
Correct Answer:
D
— All members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible for government policy.
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all members of the Council are jointly responsible for government policies and decisions. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no-confidence, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. This principle forms the basis of the parliamentary system and ensures Cabinet unity and administrative coordination.
Question 86: Which of the following statements regarding the Prime Minister is/are correct? (1) The Prime Minister plays a central role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. (2) The Prime Minister is the principal link between the Council of Ministers and the President. (3) The Prime Minister is appointed through direct voting by the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the focal point in the formation, reorganization, and functioning of the Council of Ministers. He acts as the constitutional link between the President and the Council of Ministers and provides necessary information to the President under Article 78. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, not through direct voting by the Lok Sabha. However, in practice, the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha becomes the Prime Minister. Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Question 87: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (2) The Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha. (3) In the event of a tie, the Vice-President can exercise a casting vote.
Correct Answer:
C
— Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Under Article 64, the Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, but he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the proceedings of the House. Ordinarily, he has no voting right; however, in the event of a tie, he may exercise a casting vote. Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 88: Which of the following functions is performed by the President not at his discretion, but on the advice of the Council of Ministers?
Correct Answer:
A
— Proclamation of National Emergency
Explanation:
According to Article 74, the President ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. A Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 352) is issued by the President on the written advice of the Cabinet. Therefore, this action is based on the advice of the Council of Ministers and not on the President’s personal discretion. Resigning from office or contesting for the office of President relates to the President’s personal constitutional rights. Hence, the correct answer is A.
Question 89: Which of the following statements regarding the veto powers of the President is/are correct? (1) The President can exercise an Absolute Veto on a Constitutional Amendment Bill. (2) The President can return an Ordinary Bill to Parliament for reconsideration. (3) The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
Correct Answer:
D
— Only 2 and 3
Explanation:
The President may exercise a Suspensive Veto by returning an Ordinary Bill to Parliament for reconsideration. If Parliament passes it again, the President is bound to give assent. A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration because it is introduced only on the President’s prior recommendation. In the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, the President has no veto option; under Article 368, assent is mandatory. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Question 90: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Elected members of the State Legislative Councils do not participate in the election of the President. (2) Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the election of the President. (3) Nominated members of Parliament participate in the election of the Vice-President.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
In the election of the President (Article 54), only the elected members of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and certain Union Territories participate. Members of Legislative Councils and nominated members of Parliament do not participate. On the other hand, in the election of the Vice-President (Article 66), all members of both Houses of Parliament, including both elected and nominated members, participate.
Question 91: Which of the following statements regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill is correct?
Correct Answer:
C
— It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
Explanation:
A Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 may be introduced in either House of Parliament. It generally requires a special majority for passage, and in certain cases, ratification by the States is also necessary. There is no provision for a joint sitting in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Further, the President cannot return such a Bill for reconsideration; once duly passed by Parliament, assent is mandatory.
Question 92: Which of the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— He presides over the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and presides over its proceedings. The Speaker maintains order in the House, interprets parliamentary rules, and decides questions relating to Money Bills. The Speaker also presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament when such a sitting is convened under Article 108. The office of the Speaker is regarded as a symbol of parliamentary authority, impartiality, and dignity.
Question 93: What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as provided in the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
B
— 250
Explanation:
According to Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of 250 members, of whom 238 represent the States and Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, or social service. The present sanctioned strength is 245, but the constitutional maximum remains 250.
Question 94: Which of the following statements regarding the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— The Cabinet is the inner and smaller group within the Council of Ministers.
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is a broader body that may include Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. In contrast, the Cabinet is a smaller, more powerful, and policy-making inner group within the Council of Ministers. The term “Cabinet” was specifically incorporated into Article 352 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Question 95: According to the Constitution, which institution is meant to aid and advise the President?
Correct Answer:
A
— Council of Ministers
Explanation:
According to Article 74 of the Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment and the modification introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the President is generally bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, though he may once require the Council to reconsider such advice. This arrangement defines the relationship between the real executive and the nominal executive in Indian parliamentary democracy.
Question 96: Which of the following is considered a major role of the Prime Minister?
Correct Answer:
C
— Leading the Council of Ministers
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and the central pillar of the parliamentary system. He advises the President regarding the appointment of ministers, presides over meetings of the Council of Ministers, and coordinates government policies. The Prime Minister is often described as the “keystone of the Cabinet arch.” His role is highly significant in the context of Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution.
Question 97: In which House can a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President be initiated?
Correct Answer:
B
— Rajya Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 67 of the Constitution, a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha. The resolution must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and subsequently agreed to by the Lok Sabha. There are significant differences between the process for the impeachment of the President and the removal of the Vice-President.
Question 98: Which of the following is an example of the judicial power of the President?
Correct Answer:
D
— Granting pardon to a convict
Explanation:
Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, remission, suspension, and commutation of sentences. This is known as the judicial power of the President. The pardoning power is particularly significant in cases involving the death penalty. This power does not nullify a judicial decision but modifies the effect of the punishment.
Question 99: If the President wishes to resign, to whom should the resignation be addressed?
Correct Answer:
A
— Vice-President
Explanation:
According to Article 56 of the Constitution, the President addresses his resignation to the Vice-President. The Vice-President then communicates the resignation to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. This is an important constitutional provision because, in the event of a vacancy in the office of the President, the Vice-President may act as the President.
Question 100: Which of the following correctly describes the method of election of the President?
Correct Answer:
C
— Proportional representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote
Explanation:
According to Article 55 of the Constitution, the President is elected by an Electoral College through the system of proportional representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote and by secret ballot. Although the Constitution describes it as a system of proportional representation, the election is for a single office and the winning candidate must secure the required electoral quota. The President is not directly elected by the people.
Question 101: Which type of Constitutional Amendment requires, in addition to a special majority in Parliament, ratification by at least half of the States?
Correct Answer:
B
— Change in the procedure for the election of the President
Explanation:
Under Article 368, certain Constitutional Amendments require not only a special majority in Parliament but also ratification by the Legislative Assemblies of at least half of the States. These include matters relating to the election of the President, legislative and executive relations between the Union and the States, powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Seventh Schedule, and representation of States in Parliament. Since such amendments affect the federal structure, the consent of the States is considered necessary.
Question 102: Who has the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
Correct Answer:
D
— Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 110(3) of the Constitution, if any question arises as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall be final. The classification of a Bill as a Money Bill is significant because the role of the Rajya Sabha in such Bills is limited. This provision ensures the primacy of the Lok Sabha in financial matters, as it is the House directly elected by the people.
Question 103: Which of the following Parliamentary Committees falls under the category of a Standing Committee?
Correct Answer:
C
— Public Accounts Committee
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the principal Financial Standing Committees of Parliament. It examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) and scrutinizes government expenditure to ensure parliamentary control over public finances. In contrast, a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) and a Select Committee are generally constituted for a specific purpose and cease to exist after completing their assigned task, thereby falling under the category of Ad Hoc Committees.
Question 104: Which of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is correct?
Correct Answer:
A
— It is a permanent House.
Explanation:
According to Article 83(1) of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. One-third of its members retire every two years, and each member has a term of six years. This arrangement ensures continuity and distinguishes the Rajya Sabha from the Lok Sabha.
Question 105: What is the normal tenure of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer:
D
— 5 years
Explanation:
According to Article 83(2) of the Constitution, the normal term of the Lok Sabha is five years from the date appointed for its first sitting. During a National Emergency, Parliament may extend this term by law for one year at a time, but such extension cannot continue beyond six months after the Emergency has ceased. This provision balances democratic continuity with administrative stability.
Question 106: Who is regarded as the real executive in the Indian parliamentary system?
Correct Answer:
B
— Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
Explanation:
India has adopted the parliamentary system of government in which the President is the nominal executive, while the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers constitute the real executive. According to Article 74, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President. Real administrative and policy decisions are taken by the Council of Ministers. This is a key feature of the British parliamentary model.
Question 107: Which of the following offices is not automatically assumed when the office of the Vice-President becomes vacant?
Correct Answer:
C
— Prime Minister
Explanation:
The Vice-President serves as the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and may act as the President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President or when the President is unable to discharge his functions. However, the Vice-President has no constitutional connection with the office of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President on the basis of majority support in the Lok Sabha and is not an office automatically associated with the Vice-President.
Question 108: Which of the following veto powers are available to the President of India?
Correct Answer:
C
— Absolute Veto, Suspensive Veto, and Pocket Veto
Explanation:
The President of India enjoys three types of veto powers—Absolute Veto, Suspensive Veto, and Pocket Veto. Under the Absolute Veto, the President may withhold assent to a Bill, resulting in its lapse. Under the Suspensive Veto, the President may return an ordinary Bill (other than a Money Bill or a Constitutional Amendment Bill) to Parliament for reconsideration. If Parliament passes the Bill again, with or without amendments, the President is constitutionally bound to give assent. Under the Pocket Veto, the President may neither assent to nor reject a Bill and may keep it pending for an indefinite period. However, the Suspensive Veto is not available in the case of Constitutional Amendment Bills, as the President must give assent to such Bills once they are duly passed by Parliament.
Question 109: Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to the President of India?
Correct Answer:
D
— Chief Justice of India
Explanation:
According to Article 60 of the Constitution, the oath of office and secrecy to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India. In the absence of the Chief Justice, the senior-most available Judge of the Supreme Court performs this duty. The oath includes a commitment to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and to serve the people.
Question 110: Which of the following statements regarding the President’s ordinance-making power is correct?
Correct Answer:
B
— An Ordinance can be issued when either House of Parliament is not in session.
Explanation:
According to Article 123 of the Constitution, the President may promulgate an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session and circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action. An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but is temporary in nature. It must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament unless approved earlier by Parliament. The ordinance-making power is an extraordinary legislative power vested in the executive.
Question 111: The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is primarily described in which Article?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 368
Explanation:
The procedure for constitutional amendment is described in Article 368 of the Constitution. Under this provision, some amendments require a special majority, while others require a special majority along with ratification by at least half of the States. The Indian Constitution is neither wholly rigid nor wholly flexible; it is a combination of both.
Question 112: A Money Bill can be introduced only in which House?
Correct Answer:
A
— Lok Sabha
Explanation:
According to Articles 109 and 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations and must return it within 14 days. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill is considered final.
Question 113: To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
Correct Answer:
B
— Lok Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers, the entire Council must resign. This principle forms the foundation of the parliamentary system and ensures democratic accountability. The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers from office.
Question 114: Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
Correct Answer:
D
— President
Explanation:
According to Article 75 of the Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President. Generally, the leader of the party or coalition commanding a majority in the Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister. In the parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is the real executive head, whereas the President is the constitutional head. The President’s role becomes relatively significant when no clear majority emerges.
Question 115: The Vice-President of India serves ex officio as:
Correct Answer:
C
— Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 64 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and maintains the dignity and discipline of the House. The Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha and therefore does not ordinarily vote; however, in the event of a tie, he may exercise a casting vote. This is an important feature of the Indian parliamentary system.
Question 116: By whom is the Vice-President of India elected?
Correct Answer:
A
— All members of both Houses of Parliament
Explanation:
According to Article 66 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. Unlike the Presidential election, nominated members of Parliament also participate in this election. State Legislative Assemblies have no role in it.
Question 117: On what ground can the process of impeachment against the President be initiated?
Correct Answer:
D
— Violation of the Constitution
Explanation:
According to Article 61 of the Constitution, the President can be impeached only for violation of the Constitution. The impeachment process may be initiated by either House of Parliament. A notice must be given at least 14 days before moving the resolution, and a special majority is required. The Constitution does not define the term “violation of the Constitution,” making it an important constitutional concept.
Question 118: Which of the following is a legislative power of the President?
Correct Answer:
B
— Summoning and proroguing the sessions of Parliament
Explanation:
The legislative powers of the President include summoning Parliament, proroguing its sessions, and dissolving the Lok Sabha. This power is related to Article 85 of the Constitution. Appointment of judges falls under executive powers, granting pardons under judicial powers, and appointment of the Finance Commission under administrative/executive powers.
Question 119: What is the tenure of the President of India according to the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— 5 years
Explanation:
According to Article 56 of the Constitution, the President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon office. However, even after the expiry of the term, the President continues in office until the successor assumes office. The President is eligible for re-election, and the Constitution does not prescribe any limit on the number of re-elections.
Question 120: Which of the following are included in the Electoral College for the election of the President of India?
Correct Answer:
A
— Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation:
According to Article 54 of the Constitution, the President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. After the 70th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry were also included. Nominated members and members of Legislative Councils do not participate in the Presidential election.
Question 121: Assertion (A): The dissolution of the Lok Sabha automatically terminates all Parliamentary Committees. Reason (R): Some Parliamentary Committees are of a permanent nature and are also associated with the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The dissolution of the Lok Sabha does not automatically terminate all Parliamentary Committees. Several committees, particularly those associated with the Rajya Sabha, continue unaffected by the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Certain standing committees are reconstituted periodically and their work continues institutionally. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The Reason is correct because some Parliamentary Committees are permanent in nature and are not dependent solely on the existence of the Lok Sabha.
Question 122: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. Reason (R): The final determination of a Money Bill depends upon the Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifying it as a Money Bill.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill and may only make recommendations. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Speaker’s certification determines whether a bill is a Money Bill; thus, the reason is also correct. However, the real reason why the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill lies in its constitutionally limited role regarding such bills, not merely in the Speaker’s certification. Therefore, the reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.
Question 123: Assertion (A): If a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. Reason (R): The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
If a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the entire Council of Ministers must resign because it is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Prime Minister is indeed the head of the Council of Ministers, so the reason is also correct. However, the resignation of the Council of Ministers results from the principle of collective responsibility, not merely because the Prime Minister is its head. Therefore, the reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.
Question 124: Assertion (A): Despite certain similarities, a Financial Bill [Category-I] and a Money Bill do not enjoy the same constitutional status. Reason (R): A Financial Bill [Category-I] can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
A Financial Bill (Category-I) under Article 117(1) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President. Therefore, the Reason is correct. However, a Financial Bill (Category-I) is not a Money Bill because it contains matters beyond those specified in Article 110. Consequently, the Rajya Sabha has substantially greater legislative powers with respect to such a bill than it has in the case of a Money Bill. Hence, although both statements are correct, the Reason does not explain the Assertion.
Question 125: Assertion (A): Parliamentary Committees are a substitute for Parliament. Reason (R): Committees undertake detailed examination, investigation, and scrutiny on behalf of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Parliamentary Committees are not a substitute for Parliament; rather, they are its auxiliary institutions. They perform detailed examination, investigation, and review on behalf of Parliament. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. Committees play a crucial role in making parliamentary control more effective.
Question 126: Assertion (A): The certification of a Money Bill by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is completely immune from judicial review. Reason (R): The Constitution declares the Speaker’s decision to be final.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 110(3) states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall be final. Therefore, the Reason is correct. However, the Supreme Court has indicated in cases such as K.S. Puttaswamy (Aadhaar Case) and Rojer Mathew v. South Indian Bank Ltd. that the Speaker's certification is not absolutely immune from judicial review and may be examined in exceptional constitutional circumstances. Hence, the Assertion is incorrect.
Question 127: Assertion (A): Both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha enjoy equal powers with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bills. Reason (R): A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed separately by both Houses with the required special majority, and there is no provision for a joint sitting.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed separately by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with the required special majority. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement. This clearly establishes the equal constitutional status of both Houses in the amendment process. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 128: Assertion (A): The President can exercise a Pocket Veto on a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Reason (R): After a Constitutional Amendment Bill is passed, the President is constitutionally required to give assent.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Under Article 368, once a Constitutional Amendment Bill has been duly passed by Parliament and presented to the President, the President is constitutionally bound to give assent. Therefore, the President cannot exercise either an Absolute Veto, a Suspensive Veto, or a Pocket Veto in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the Reason is correct.
Question 129: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha can retain a Money Bill for a maximum period of 14 days. Reason (R): The role of the Rajya Sabha in relation to a Money Bill is limited to making recommendations.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
According to Article 109, the Rajya Sabha can withhold a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days. After this period, the bill is deemed to have been passed by Parliament in the form passed by the Lok Sabha. This is because the Rajya Sabha’s role regarding a Money Bill is merely recommendatory, and its recommendations are not binding on the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 130: Assertion (A): A Minister of the Council of Ministers may publicly oppose a Cabinet decision, and collective responsibility may still remain intact. Reason (R): The principle of collective responsibility is based on Cabinet unity.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Collective responsibility means that all Ministers must publicly support Cabinet decisions. If a Minister publicly opposes a Cabinet decision, he or she is generally expected to resign. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because the principle is founded on Cabinet unity and political solidarity.
Question 131: Assertion (A): In the event of a hung Lok Sabha, the President may exercise limited discretion in appointing the Prime Minister. Reason (R): In such a situation, it becomes necessary to ensure that the person appointed is capable of securing the confidence of the House.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under normal circumstances, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as Prime Minister. However, in a hung Lok Sabha, the President may have to determine which individual is most likely to prove a majority in the House. Therefore, limited discretion may be exercised. The reason explains this constitutional necessity and correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 132: Assertion (A): State Legislative Assemblies participate in the election of the Vice-President. Reason (R): The Vice-President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Article 66, the Vice-President is elected only by the members of both Houses of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies have no role in this election. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. This is the most important difference between the election of the President and that of the Vice-President. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 133: Assertion (A): For passing an impeachment resolution against the President, a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of each House is required. Reason (R): Impeachment of the President is a special constitutional process initiated on the charge of violation of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 61 provides that impeachment proceedings against the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. The charge must ultimately be sustained by a resolution passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House investigating or considering the charge, and both Houses are involved in the process. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The Reason is also correct because impeachment is a special constitutional process based on the charge of violation of the Constitution. However, the requirement of a special majority is prescribed to ensure the dignity, stability and seriousness of the office, and hence the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.
Question 134: Assertion (A): The veto powers of the President are considered to include Absolute Veto, Suspensive Veto, and Pocket Veto. Reason (R): The Constitution explicitly mentions all three of these veto powers.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
In Indian constitutional practice, the President is recognized as possessing Absolute Veto, Suspensive Veto, and Pocket Veto powers; therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, the Constitution does not explicitly mention these veto powers by name. These concepts have evolved through parliamentary conventions, constitutional interpretation, and practice. Hence, the reason is incorrect.
Question 135: Assertion (A): The purpose of the system of determining the value of votes in the election of the President is to maintain balance in representation among the States and between the States and the Union. Reason (R): The President is elected through the system of direct election.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Article 55 seeks to ensure uniformity in representation among the States and between the Union and the States in the election of the President; therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, the President is elected not through direct election but through an indirect electoral system by an Electoral College. Hence, the reason is incorrect.
Question 136: Assertion (A): The Lok Sabha is bound to accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha regarding a Money Bill. Reason (R): The power to take the final decision on a Money Bill rests with the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them. The final decision rests with the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. Article 109 prescribes this special procedure for Money Bills.
Question 137: Assertion (A): While promulgating an Ordinance, the President obtains prior approval from both Houses of Parliament. Reason (R): The power to promulgate an Ordinance is exercised during the recess of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Under Article 123, prior approval of Parliament is not required for the promulgation of an Ordinance. This power is exercised during the recess of Parliament when immediate legislative action is necessary. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.
Question 138: Assertion (A): A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 75(3) makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. For this reason, a No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. If the government loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, it must resign. The reason directly explains the Assertion.
Question 139: Assertion (A): Department-related Standing Committees form part of the permanent committee system of Parliament. Reason (R): These committees are intended to examine the functioning of Ministries and Demands for Grants.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Department-related Standing Committees are an important part of the parliamentary committee system. They undertake detailed scrutiny of the policies, Demands for Grants, and functioning of Ministries. This is their primary purpose; therefore, the reason appropriately explains the Assertion. They play a significant role in strengthening parliamentary accountability.
Question 140: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha has less power than the Lok Sabha in the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Reason (R): A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both A and R are incorrect
Explanation:
Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. In matters of Constitutional Amendment, both Houses enjoy equal powers, and both must pass the bill with the required special majority. Therefore, Assertion (A) is incorrect. Reason (R) is also incorrect. Hence, both Assertions are incorrect.
Question 141: Assertion (A): Certification as a Money Bill by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is necessary for all Financial Bills. Reason (R): The Speaker’s certification is constitutionally required only for Money Bills.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Not all Financial Bills are Money Bills. The Speaker’s special certification is required only for Money Bills. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.
Question 142: Assertion (A): The office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is regarded as being above partisan politics. Reason (R): The Speaker’s duty is to conduct the proceedings of the House impartially.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Parliamentary convention expects the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to act impartially. Conducting the proceedings of the House in a fair and balanced manner is one of the Speaker’s primary responsibilities. Therefore, the office of the Speaker is regarded as being above partisan politics. The reason appropriately explains the Assertion.
Question 143: Assertion (A): A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed in a joint sitting of Parliament. Reason (R): There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 368 does not provide for a joint sitting in the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Both Houses must pass such a bill separately with the required majority. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. This is an important distinction between an ordinary bill and a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Question 144: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha enjoys powers equal to those of the Lok Sabha in financial matters. Reason (R): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
In financial matters, the powers of the Rajya Sabha are inferior to those of the Lok Sabha. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha can merely make recommendations. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.
Question 145: Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers and the Cabinet are identical constitutional expressions. Reason (R): The term “Cabinet” was not originally used in the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers and the Cabinet are not identical. The Cabinet is the inner and smaller decision-making group within the Council of Ministers. The reason is correct because the term “Cabinet” did not exist in the original Constitution; it was inserted into Article 352 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.
Question 146: Assertion (A): The leader of the party securing a clear majority in the Lok Sabha is generally appointed as the Prime Minister. Reason (R): In a parliamentary system of government, the Prime Minister must enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Indian parliamentary system, the President generally appoints as Prime Minister the person who can command the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha. Retaining the confidence of the Lok Sabha is a constitutional requirement for the survival of the government. Therefore, the reason directly explains the Assertion. The spirit of Article 75 is based on this principle.
Question 147: Assertion (A): A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President is initiated in the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): Since the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the resolution for his removal is initiated in the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Article 67, a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President is initiated in the Rajya Sabha and subsequently agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because, being the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the removal process begins in that House.
Question 148: Assertion (A): Nominated Members of Parliament can vote in the election of the President. Reason (R): The President is the constitutional head of the nation; therefore, all members of Parliament participate in the election.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both A and R are incorrect
Explanation:
According to Article 54, only the elected members of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories (Delhi and Puducherry) participate in the election of the President. Nominated members of Parliament do not vote. Therefore, Assertion (A) is incorrect. Reason (R) is also incorrect because not all members of Parliament participate in the presidential election. Hence, both Assertions are incorrect.
Question 149: Assertion (A): If an ordinary bill returned by the President is passed again by Parliament, the President may once again exercise a suspensive veto on it. Reason (R): The President is constitutionally bound to give assent to a bill that has been reconsidered and passed again by Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The President may return an ordinary bill for reconsideration only once. If Parliament passes the bill again, the President is required to give assent. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct. This reflects the constitutional limitation of the suspensive veto.
Question 150: Assertion (A): If both the offices of the President and the Vice-President fall vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or, in his absence, the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available) may discharge the functions of the President. Reason (R): The Constitution and the law relating to the discharge of the President’s functions ensure continuity in the office of the President and prevent a constitutional vacuum.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 65, the Vice-President acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President. However, if both the offices of the President and the Vice-President are vacant, the arrangement is governed by the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969. In such a situation, the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior-most available Judge of the Supreme Court, discharges the functions of the President. This provision ensures continuity of constitutional governance and prevents any vacancy in the exercise of presidential powers. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 151: Assertion (A): Approval of the States is required in every method of Constitutional Amendment. Reason (R): Some Constitutional Amendments can be carried out solely by a special majority of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Approval of the States is not required for all Constitutional Amendments. Under Article 368, many amendments can be enacted solely by a special majority of Parliament, while certain amendments require ratification by at least one-half of the State Legislatures. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct.
Question 152: Assertion (A): All reports of Parliamentary Committees are legally binding on the government. Reason (R): Parliamentary Committees are bodies constituted to assist Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The reports of Parliamentary Committees are highly influential, but they are generally not legally binding on the government. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because Parliamentary Committees provide expert assistance to Parliament. Their role is to examine, scrutinize, and make recommendations.
Question 153: Assertion (A): The Cabinet is the inner and most powerful part of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): Major policy decisions are generally taken at the Cabinet level.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The Cabinet is the principal decision-making body within the Council of Ministers. Major decisions relating to governance, policy formulation, and administrative direction are generally taken by the Cabinet. For this reason, the Cabinet is regarded as the most powerful inner core of the Council of Ministers. The reason directly explains the Assertion.
Question 154: Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has no special role in relation to a Money Bill. Reason (R): Certification of a Money Bill is done by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha performs a crucial constitutional function in relation to a Money Bill because it is the Speaker who certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill under Article 110. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct. The Constitution declares the Speaker's certification to be final for parliamentary purposes. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 155: Assertion (A): It is constitutionally mandatory for the Prime Minister to be a member of the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): The Prime Minister may be a member of either House of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The Constitution does not require the Prime Minister to be a member of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister may be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Several Prime Ministers in Indian political history have been members of the Rajya Sabha.
Question 156: Assertion (A): Financial Bills and Money Bills belong to the same constitutional category of bills. Reason (R): Every Money Bill is a Financial Bill, but every Financial Bill is not a Money Bill.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Money Bills and Financial Bills are distinct constitutional categories. A Money Bill is defined under Article 110, whereas Financial Bills are dealt with under Article 117. A Financial Bill has a wider scope than a Money Bill and follows a different legislative procedure. Although every Money Bill is financial in nature, every Financial Bill is not a Money Bill. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the Reason is correct. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 157: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. Reason (R): The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
According to Article 83, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved. One-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected in their place. This is precisely what makes it a permanent House. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 158: Assertion (A): The President can return a Constitutional Amendment Bill to Parliament for reconsideration. Reason (R): The President is constitutionally bound to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Under Article 368, once a Constitutional Amendment Bill has been duly passed by Parliament and is presented to the President, the President cannot return it for reconsideration. Assent is mandatory. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, whereas the reason is correct. This is an important distinction between an ordinary bill and a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Question 159: Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill. Reason (R): The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
The powers of the Rajya Sabha with respect to a Money Bill are limited. It can neither reject a Money Bill nor compel the Lok Sabha to accept amendments. It may only make recommendations. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect and the reason is correct. Articles 109 and 110 provide the constitutional basis for this arrangement.
Question 160: Assertion (A): Collective responsibility means that all members of the Council of Ministers are jointly responsible for every governmental decision. Reason (R): A Minister may publicly disagree with a decision of the Council of Ministers and still continue in office.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all Ministers are jointly responsible for the decisions and policies of the government and must publicly support them. If a Minister publicly expresses disagreement with a decision of the Council of Ministers, parliamentary convention requires that the Minister resign or be removed from office. Therefore, the Assertion is correct, whereas the reason is incorrect.
Question 161: Assertion (A): The Prime Minister plays a central role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): The President generally appoints only those persons as Ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In a parliamentary system of government, the Prime Minister is regarded as the architect of the Council of Ministers. Under Article 75, the President appoints Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. Therefore, the Prime Minister plays a central role in determining the composition, size, and allocation of portfolios within the Council of Ministers. The reason directly explains the Assertion.
Question 162: Assertion (A): The Vice-President is elected only by the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): The Vice-President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament. Both elected and nominated members participate in this election. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.
Question 163: Assertion (A): The ground for the impeachment of the President is violation of the Constitution. Reason (R): The Constitution provides a clear definition of the term “violation of the Constitution.”
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
According to Article 61, the President may be removed from office only through impeachment on the ground of violation of the Constitution. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, the Constitution does not provide any clear definition of the term “violation of the Constitution.” Consequently, its determination depends upon the political and parliamentary process. Therefore, the reason is incorrect, and Option C is correct.
Question 164: Assertion (A): The President can exercise a pocket veto. Reason (R): The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for the President to take a decision on an ordinary bill.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution does not expressly mention the pocket veto. However, in practice, the President may keep a decision on a non-Constitutional Amendment Bill pending indefinitely. This is possible because the Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which the President must grant assent, withhold assent, or return such a bill for reconsideration. The concept of pocket veto arises due to the absence of such a time limit. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 165: Assertion (A): The value of votes of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State is not the same in the election of the President. Reason (R): In the election of the President, the value of votes is determined on the basis of the population of the concerned State and the number of its elected legislators.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Article 55 seeks to ensure uniformity in representation among the States and between the States and the Union in the election of the President. Therefore, the value of each MLA’s vote is determined on the basis of the population of the State and the number of elected MLAs. As a result, the value of votes of legislators from different States may vary. The reason directly explains the Assertion; hence, Option A is correct.
Question 166: Assertion (A): Parliamentary Committees help reduce the workload of Parliament and make legislative scrutiny more effective. Reason (R): Parliamentary Committees can undertake relatively detailed and technical examination outside the House.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Parliamentary Committees conduct detailed scrutiny of bills, budget proposals, and administrative functions. This distributes Parliament’s workload and makes legislative examination more thorough and effective. Therefore, Assertion (A) is correct. Reason (R) is also correct because committees can carry out detailed and technical examination outside the formal proceedings of the House, often with the assistance of experts and in a relatively less political environment. This characteristic enables them to reduce Parliament’s workload and improve the quality of legislative scrutiny. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 167: Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. Reason (R): The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha regarding a Money Bill is considered final.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Under Article 110, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill. The Constitution declares the Speaker's certification to be final for parliamentary purposes. Therefore, the Speaker decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not. Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Therefore, Option A is correct.
Question 168: Assertion (A): A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may be convened for a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Reason (R): A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed separately by both Houses with the required special majority.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
Article 368 does not provide for a joint sitting in the case of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed separately by both Houses with the prescribed special majority. If either House rejects the bill, a joint sitting cannot be convened. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 169: Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Reason (R): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to Articles 109 and 110, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill and must return it within 14 days. The certification of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is decisive. Hence, Option D is correct.
Question 170: Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): Every Minister of the Council of Ministers may be a member of either House of Parliament.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, the Assertion is correct. The reason is also correct because a Minister may be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. However, this fact is not the reason for collective responsibility. Collective responsibility is a feature of the parliamentary system of government, not of the House membership of Ministers. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 171: Assertion (A): The Prime Minister is the real head of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): The President generally acts on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In the Indian parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is the head of the real executive and the leader of the Council of Ministers. Under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Since the real executive powers are exercised through the Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister, the Prime Minister becomes the real head of the government. Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Hence, Option A is correct.
Question 172: Assertion (A): The Vice-President is an elected member of the Rajya Sabha. Reason (R): The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct
Explanation:
According to the Constitution, the Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha; rather, he serves as its ex-officio Chairman. Therefore, the Assertion is incorrect. The reason is correct because Article 64 declares the Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Question 173: Assertion (A): The process of impeachment of the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. Reason (R): The approval of State Legislative Assemblies is necessary for initiating an impeachment motion.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
According to Article 61, the process of impeachment against the President may be initiated in either House of Parliament. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. However, State Legislative Assemblies have no role in this process; it is entirely a parliamentary procedure. Hence, the reason is incorrect. The impeachment motion requires a special majority, and the participation of both Houses is mandatory. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Question 174: Assertion (A): The President has the power to exercise a suspensive veto on an ordinary bill passed by Parliament. Reason (R): The President can return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect
Explanation:
The President may return an Ordinary Bill to Parliament for reconsideration under Article 111. This power is known as the Suspensive Veto. Therefore, Assertion (A) is correct. However, the President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration. In the case of a Money Bill, the President may either give assent or withhold assent, but cannot exercise the power of reconsideration. Therefore, Reason (R) is incorrect. Hence, Option C is correct.
Question 175: Assertion (A): Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies participate in the election of the President. Reason (R): The election of the President is designed to provide representation to both the Union and the States in accordance with the federal character of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
According to Article 54, the President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, as well as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry. Therefore, the Assertion is correct. The reason is also correct because the framers of the Constitution ensured the participation of both the Union and the States in the election of the President so that the spirit of Indian federalism is reflected. Thus, the reason directly explains the Assertion, making Option A correct. As an elimination technique, note that the method of electing the President ensures the participation of both the Union and the States, thereby reflecting the federal character of India.