Practice UPSC Polity Constitutional Amendments MCQs covering the 42nd, 44th, 52nd, 61st, 73rd, 74th, 86th, 91st, 97th, 101st and latest amendments with answers & explanations.
This quiz contains 76 carefully selected multiple-choice questions (MCQ) with detailed explanations for each answer. Questions cover important topics from Polity.
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Constitutional Amendments MCQs for UPSC Prelims
Description
Practice UPSC Polity Constitutional Amendments MCQs covering the 42nd, 44th, 52nd, 61st, 73rd, 74th, 86th, 91st, 97th, 101st and latest amendments with answers & explanations.
Difficulty
Expert
Num Questions
76
Points Per Question
1
Time Limit
60 minutes
All MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following options most appropriately expresses the overall trend of major amendments to the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
D
— Different major amendments have been enacted from time to time to address diverse constitutional needs such as democratic governance, federalism, social justice, local self-government, and constitutional balance.
Explanation:
The major amendments to the Constitution of India have not been driven by a single objective. The 42nd Amendment was concerned with comprehensive constitutional restructuring, the 44th with civil liberties and democratic balance, the 73rd–74th with local self-government, the 101st with cooperative federalism, and the 103rd with a new dimension of social justice. Therefore, Option D presents the broadest and constitutionally most appropriate conclusion.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd, 44th, and 101st Constitutional Amendments all represent significant phases in the constitutional development of India. (2) All three amendments are directly related only to Fundamental Rights. (3) All three amendments introduced institutional changes in different dimensions of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The first and third statements are correct. The 42nd Amendment dealt with comprehensive constitutional restructuring, the 44th Amendment restored democratic balance, and the 101st Amendment relates to fiscal federalism. Their scope is not confined only to Fundamental Rights.
Question 3: Which of the following statements most appropriately expresses the impact of the 44th Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
C
— It strengthened accountability in the Emergency provisions and enhanced the protection of civil liberties.
Explanation:
The 44th Constitutional Amendment reformed the Emergency provisions, strengthened the protection of civil liberties, and reinforced constitutional checks on the executive. The other options are either exaggerated or factually incorrect.
Question 4: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) All the provisions of the 97th Constitutional Amendment continue to remain in force without any change. (2) The Supreme Court examined the validity of certain provisions of this amendment on the basis of the principle of federalism. (3) The provisions relating to Multi-State Cooperative Societies continue to remain valid.
Correct Answer:
D
— 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement (1) is incorrect. The Supreme Court struck down certain provisions relating to cooperative societies within the States for want of ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statements (2) and (3) are correct. The Court upheld the provisions relating to Multi-State Cooperative Societies while emphasizing the federal distribution of legislative powers.
Question 5: Which of the following conclusions most appropriately expresses the constitutional nature of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
A
— It incorporated the economic criterion within the constitutional concept of social justice.
Explanation:
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment introduced special provisions for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), thereby granting constitutional recognition to the economic criterion as well. It neither abolished nor replaced the existing reservation framework.
Question 6: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The objective of the 91st Constitutional Amendment was only to limit the size of the Council of Ministers. (2) This amendment is also related to strengthening the anti-defection framework.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2 only
Explanation:
The first statement is incorrect because the objective of the 91st Constitutional Amendment was not limited to restricting the size of the Council of Ministers; it also strengthened the anti-defection law. The second statement is correct.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 101st Constitutional Amendment established a new institutional framework for cooperative federalism in India. (2) The recommendations of the GST Council are constitutionally binding on the Union and the States. (3) The GST Council includes representation from both the Union and the States.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statements (1) and (3) are correct. The GST Council is an important institutional mechanism of cooperative federalism and includes representatives of both the Union and the States. Statement (2) is incorrect. The Supreme Court has clarified that the recommendations of the GST Council have persuasive value but are not legally binding on the Union and the States.
Question 8: With reference to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, which of the following conclusions is the most appropriate?
Correct Answer:
D
— These amendments provided a constitutional foundation for democratic decentralisation, but the extent of actual empowerment continued to depend on the policies of the States.
Explanation:
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provided constitutional status to local self-government. However, the actual transfer of functions, finances and functionaries (3Fs) continues to depend substantially on State legislation and policy. Therefore, constitutional status does not imply complete autonomy.
Question 9: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment sought to expand Parliament's amending power by attempting to exclude constitutional amendments from judicial review. (2) The 44th Constitutional Amendment completely repealed all the provisions of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. (3) Under the present constitutional framework, Parliament's amending power is considered to be subject to the Basic Structure doctrine.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement (1) is correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted clauses in Article 368 seeking to exclude Constitutional Amendment Acts from judicial review and to enlarge Parliament's amending power. Statement (2) is incorrect. The 44th Constitutional Amendment did not repeal all provisions of the 42nd Amendment. Many provisions of the 42nd Amendment continue to remain in force. Statement (3) is correct. Following the Supreme Court's decisions, Parliament's amending power remains subject to the Basic Structure doctrine.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd, 44th, and 101st Constitutional Amendments have all had a long-term impact on India's federal or constitutional structure. (2) The fundamental objective of all three amendments was the same. (3) All three amendments introduced institutional changes in different dimensions of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The first and third statements are correct. The 42nd Amendment introduced extensive constitutional changes, the 44th Amendment strengthened democratic balance and civil liberties, and the 101st Amendment restructured the federal taxation system. Their objectives were not identical; therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 11: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
B
— The Supreme Court delivered a judgment on certain of its provisions on the basis of federalism.
Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment introduced constitutional provisions relating to co-operative societies. Subsequently, in Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021), the Supreme Court held that the amendments relating to State co-operative societies were invalid due to the absence of ratification by the States. However, the provisions relating to multi-State co-operative societies continued to remain effective. Therefore, option B is correct. The judgment was confined only to the provisions of Part IX-B applicable to State co-operative societies, while those relating to multi-State co-operative societies remained unaffected.
Question 12: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 44th Constitutional Amendment sought to make the proclamation of National Emergency more accountable. (2) After this amendment, the expression "internal disturbance" was replaced by "armed rebellion". (3) The 44th Constitutional Amendment abolished the constitutional provision relating to National Emergency.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The first and second statements are correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment replaced the expression "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" for the proclamation of Emergency and made the procedure more accountable. The third statement is incorrect because the constitutional provision relating to Emergency was not abolished.
Question 13: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) After the 91st Constitutional Amendment, a person disqualified on the ground of defection cannot be appointed as a Minister unless re-elected. (2) The 91st Constitutional Amendment prescribed a constitutional limit on the size of the Council of Ministers at the Union and State levels.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 91st Constitutional Amendment further strengthened the anti-defection law. It provides that a person disqualified on the ground of defection cannot be appointed as a Minister until re-elected or until the period of disqualification expires. The same amendment also imposed a constitutional ceiling of 15% of the total strength of the concerned House on the size of the Council of Ministers at both the Union and State levels.
Question 14: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 101st Constitutional Amendment provided for the establishment of the GST Council. (2) The GST Council consists only of representatives of the States. (3) The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The first and third statements are correct. The GST Council, constituted under Article 279A, is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes representatives of both the Union and the States. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
Question 15: Which of the following statements is the most appropriate regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
A
— It provided a uniform constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj Institutions while also granting States adequate authority to determine legislative details.
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment established a minimum constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj Institutions, while leaving their actual powers, financial authority, and several administrative aspects to the State Legislatures.
Question 16: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IV-A into the Constitution. (2) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity" into the Preamble. (3) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The first and second statements are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) inserted Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and added the words "Socialist", "Secular", and "Integrity" to the Preamble. The third statement is incorrect because the Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) and made a legal right under Article 300A.
Question 17: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd, 44th, and 101st Constitutional Amendments brought structural changes to different dimensions of the Indian constitutional system. (2) All three amendments relate exclusively to Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 only
Explanation:
The first statement is correct because the 42nd Amendment introduced extensive changes to several aspects of the constitutional framework, the 44th Amendment strengthened democratic balance and the protection of rights, and the 101st Amendment brought structural changes to the federal taxation system. The second statement is incorrect because these amendments are not confined solely to Fundamental Rights.
Question 18: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The objective of the 97th Constitutional Amendment was to promote democratic, autonomous, and professional management in co-operative societies. (2) The Supreme Court declared the provisions of Part IX-B relating to State co-operative societies unconstitutional for want of ratification by the States, while the provisions relating to multi-State co-operative societies remained valid.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 aimed to promote democratic, autonomous, and professional management in co-operative societies. It inserted Part IX-B into the Constitution and introduced provisions relating to co-operative societies. Subsequently, the Supreme Court declared the provisions of Part IX-B applicable to State co-operative societies unconstitutional due to the absence of ratification by the States, while the provisions relating to multi-State co-operative societies remained unaffected. Therefore, both statements are correct.
Question 19: Which of the following statements most appropriately expresses the constitutional spirit of the 44th Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
C
— To restore civil liberties and constitutional balance after the experience of the Emergency.
Explanation:
The 44th Constitutional Amendment was enacted after the Emergency with the objective of restoring the balance among democratic institutions and strengthening the protection of civil liberties. The other options relate respectively to the 42nd and the 73rd/74th Constitutional Amendments.
Question 20: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Part IX — Panchayati Raj (2) Part IX-A — Municipalities (3) Part IX-B — Co-operative Societies
Correct Answer:
B
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three pairs are correctly matched. Part IX was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, Part IX-A by the 74th Constitutional Amendment, and Part IX-B by the 97th Constitutional Amendment. However, following the Supreme Court's judgment in Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021), Part IX-B continues to apply only to multi-State co-operative societies, while its application to State co-operative societies was declared unconstitutional for want of State ratification.
Question 21: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes. (2) The 105th Constitutional Amendment clarified the States' power to prepare the list of Backward Classes. (3) The 105th Constitutional Amendment abolished the National Commission for Backward Classes.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes. The 105th Constitutional Amendment restored and clarified the States' power to prepare the SEBC list. The Commission was not abolished; therefore, the third statement is incorrect.
Question 22: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 101st Constitutional Amendment provided for the GST Council. (2) The GST Council is regarded as an institutional example of cooperative federalism. (3) Every recommendation of the GST Council is automatically binding on the States.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The 101st Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 279A, providing for the GST Council. It is regarded as an important institutional platform for cooperative federalism. The Supreme Court, in Union of India v. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. (2022), clarified that the recommendations of the GST Council are not legally binding but carry persuasive value. Therefore, the first and second statements are correct, while the third is incorrect.
Question 23: Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
C
— It increased the reservation limit for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Explanation:
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). However, it did not alter the reservation percentage for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.
Question 24: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 52nd Constitutional Amendment introduced disqualification on the ground of defection. (2) The 91st Constitutional Amendment abolished the exemption available on the basis of split in cases of defection. (3) The 91st Constitutional Amendment repealed the Tenth Schedule.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The 52nd Amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule and introduced the anti-defection law. The 91st Amendment abolished the exemption for splits based on one-third of the members and retained only the provision relating to mergers. The Tenth Schedule was not repealed.
Question 25: Which of the following options is the most appropriate regarding the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?
Correct Answer:
D
— Both amendments provided a constitutional framework for local self-government, while the actual transfer of powers remained largely dependent upon the State Legislatures.
Explanation:
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies. However, the actual transfer of powers, financial authority, and functions depends upon the legislative and administrative decisions of the States. Therefore, local bodies do not automatically enjoy complete autonomy.
Question 26: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted provisions in Article 368 intended to place Constitutional Amendment Acts beyond judicial review. (2) The Supreme Court subsequently declared such provisions unconstitutional on the basis of the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Constitution. (3) The 44th Constitutional Amendment abolished the constitutional system of judicial review.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted clauses (4) and (5) in Article 368, attempting to exclude Constitutional Amendment Acts from judicial review and to make Parliament's amending power unlimited. In Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court struck down these clauses as violating the Basic Structure Doctrine. The 44th Constitutional Amendment did not abolish judicial review.
Question 27: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 102nd Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 342A. (2) The objective of the 105th Constitutional Amendment was to clarify the States' power to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
Correct Answer:
D
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 342A and granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Following the Supreme Court's judgment in the Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil v. Chief Minister, Maharashtra case, the 105th Constitutional Amendment restored and clarified the States' power to prepare and maintain their own lists of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
Question 28: Which of the following Amendments is directly associated with inserting Articles 15(6) and 16(6) into the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— 103rd Constitutional Amendment
Explanation:
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), providing the constitutional basis for reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). The 102nd Amendment relates to the NCBC, the 105th Amendment concerns the States' SEBC list, and the 91st Amendment deals with the Council of Ministers and anti-defection provisions.
Question 29: Which of the following statements is most appropriate regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer:
A
— It amended certain Emergency provisions to provide greater protection to civil liberties.
Explanation:
The primary objective of the 44th Constitutional Amendment was to strengthen the protection of civil liberties in light of the experiences during the Emergency. Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Amendment, Panchayati Raj Institutions received constitutional status through the 73rd Amendment, and GST was introduced by the 101st Amendment.
Question 30: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 104th Constitutional Amendment extended the period of reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. (2) The same Amendment abolished the provision for the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community.
Correct Answer:
D
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 104th Constitutional Amendment extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies up to 25 January 2030. It also discontinued the special provision relating to the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Question 31: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Correct Answer:
B
— 74th Amendment — Eleventh Schedule
Explanation:
The 74th Constitutional Amendment inserted the Twelfth Schedule, not the Eleventh Schedule. The Eleventh Schedule is associated with the 73rd Constitutional Amendment. All the other pairs are correctly matched.
Question 32: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 97th Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IXB relating to Cooperative Societies. (2) The Supreme Court later struck down certain provisions of this Amendment on the ground that they related to matters within the States' domain.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 97th Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IXB relating to Cooperative Societies. In Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah, the Supreme Court held that provisions relating to State Cooperative Societies required ratification by at least one-half of the State Legislatures under Article 368(2). Since such ratification had not been obtained, those provisions were declared unconstitutional. However, the provisions relating to Multi-State Cooperative Societies remain valid.
Question 33: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. (2) The 86th Constitutional Amendment increased the number of Fundamental Duties.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) inserted the initial ten Fundamental Duties under Article 51A in Part IVA of the Constitution. The 86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) added one more Fundamental Duty, requiring parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between 6 and 14 years of age.
Question 34: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 44th Constitutional Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. (2) Thereafter, the Right to Property was completely abolished under the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and placed it under Article 300A as a constitutional legal right. Therefore, the Right to Property was not abolished; only its constitutional status was changed. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 35: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 103rd Constitutional Amendment inserted new provisions in both Articles 15 and 16. (2) This Amendment was related only to reservation in government jobs.
Correct Answer:
D
— 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Amendment provides reservation not only in public employment but also in educational institutions (including private unaided institutions, except minority educational institutions covered under Article 30(1)).
Question 36: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional recognition to the Gram Sabha. (2) The 74th Constitutional Amendment relates only to Municipal Corporations.
Correct Answer:
B
— 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct because the 73rd Constitutional Amendment inserted Part IX of the Constitution and gave constitutional status to the Gram Sabha under Article 243A. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 74th Constitutional Amendment covers the entire framework of Urban Local Self-Government, including Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations.
Question 37: With reference to the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
D
— Article 21A was inserted, Article 45 was amended, and a new Fundamental Duty was added under Article 51A.
Explanation:
The 86th Constitutional Amendment was multidimensional. It inserted Article 21A, amended Article 45, and added a new duty under Article 51A requiring parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between 6 and 14 years of age. Therefore, the options mentioning only one change are incomplete.
Question 38: Which of the following (Amendment – Major Subject) pairs is/are correctly matched? (1) 52nd – Anti-Defection Law (2) 91st – Limit on the Size of the Council of Ministers (3) 101st – Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Correct Answer:
A
— 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three pairs are correctly matched. The 52nd Amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule, the 91st Amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers and strengthened anti-defection provisions, while the 101st Amendment established the constitutional framework for the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Question 39: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (1) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment attempted to broaden Parliament's power to amend the Constitution. (2) The 44th Constitutional Amendment abolished the concept of judicial review.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 only
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment sought to expand Parliament's amending power and attempted to curtail judicial review by inserting provisions such as Articles 368(4) and 368(5). However, these provisions were later invalidated by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Minerva Mills v. Union of India. The 44th Constitutional Amendment did not abolish judicial review. Judicial review continues to be a part of the Constitution's Basic Structure. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 40: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2020?
Correct Answer:
D
— It abolished the provision for the nomination of members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies while extending the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for ten years.
Explanation:
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 (which came into force in 2020) extended the reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years (up to 25 January 2030). It also discontinued the provision for the nomination of members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
Question 41: What was the primary objective of the Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act, 2021?
Correct Answer:
C
— To explicitly restore the powers of the States to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs)
Explanation:
The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2021 restored the power of the States and Union Territories to prepare and maintain their own lists of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) for their own purposes, following the Supreme Court's judgment in Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil v. Chief Minister (Maratha Reservation Case).
Question 42: By which Constitutional Amendment was the National Commission for Backward Classes granted constitutional status?
Correct Answer:
A
— 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by inserting Article 338B, introducing Article 342A, and adding Article 366(26C) defining "socially and educationally backward classes."
Question 43: The Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011 primarily relates to:
Correct Answer:
D
— Constitutional protection to Cooperative Societies
Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 amended Article 19(1)(c), inserted Article 43B, and added Part IXB to promote the democratic, autonomous, and professional functioning of Co-operative Societies. In 2021, the Supreme Court in Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah held that the provisions of Part IXB relating to State Co-operative Societies were unconstitutional for want of ratification by at least one-half of the States under Article 368(2). However, the provisions continue to apply to Multi-State Co-operative Societies.
Question 44: What was the primary objective of the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003?
Correct Answer:
B
— To limit the size of the Council of Ministers and strengthen the Anti-Defection provisions
Explanation:
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 aimed to promote political stability and good governance. It limited the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and in the States to 15% of the total strength of the respective legislative house and further strengthened the Anti-Defection Law. The other options relate respectively to the 73rd, 102nd, and 101st Amendments.
Question 45: By which Constitutional Amendment was the provision for 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) introduced?
Correct Answer:
D
— 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), enabling the State to provide up to 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public employment, excluding the existing reserved categories.
Question 46: Which Constitutional Amendment was enacted to implement the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
Correct Answer:
A
— 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the constitutional framework for the Goods and Services Tax (GST) by inserting Article 246A, Article 269A, and Article 279A, the last of which provides for the GST Council..
Question 47: By which Constitutional Amendment was the Right to Education made a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years?
Correct Answer:
B
— 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years. It also substituted Article 45 and inserted Article 51A(k), making it a Fundamental Duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children in this age group.
Question 48: By which Constitutional Amendment was the Anti-Defection Law incorporated into the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
D
— 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule into the Constitution, providing for the Anti-Defection Law. The 91st Amendment later strengthened these provisions, but the law was originally introduced through the 52nd Amendment.
Question 49: By which Constitutional Amendment were the Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution?
Correct Answer:
C
— 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Part IVA into the Constitution and initially added 10 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A. Later, the 86th Amendment added one more Fundamental Duty. The 44th and 52nd Amendments are not related to this subject.
Question 50: By which Constitutional Amendment were Municipalities granted constitutional status?
Correct Answer:
A
— 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 granted constitutional status to Municipalities and inserted Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule into the Constitution. The 73rd Amendment relates to rural local self-government. The 91st and 101st Amendments deal with different subjects.
Question 51: By which Constitutional Amendment were Panchayati Raj Institutions granted constitutional status?
Correct Answer:
D
— 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule into the Constitution. The 74th Amendment relates to Urban Local Bodies, while the 97th Amendment concerns Cooperative Societies.
Question 52: By which Constitutional Amendment was the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
Correct Answer:
B
— 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 amended Article 326 and reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years, thereby broadening democratic participation.
Question 53: By which Constitutional Amendment was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a constitutional legal right?
Correct Answer:
C
— 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 omitted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, thereby removing the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. It inserted Article 300A, under which no person can be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the Right to Property became a constitutional legal right, not merely an ordinary legal right.
Question 54: Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
A
— 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is also known as the "Mini Constitution." It inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble and changed the phrase "Unity of the Nation" to "Unity and Integrity of the Nation." The 44th Amendment mainly dealt with Emergency provisions, the 52nd Amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law, and the 86th Amendment is related to the Right to Education.
Question 55: Assertion (A): The study of important Constitutional Amendments should not be limited merely to memorizing the amended Articles. Reason (R): In the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination, questions related to Constitutional Amendments are confined only to factual information such as the amended Articles and amendment numbers; questions on their constitutional impact or judicial interpretation are not asked.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct because understanding important Constitutional Amendments requires more than merely memorizing the amended Articles or amendment numbers; it also requires an understanding of their objectives, constitutional impact, judicial interpretation, and federal and institutional consequences. Reason (R) is incorrect.
Question 56: Assertion (A): The 104th Constitutional Amendment brought changes to the constitutional framework of representation. Reason (R): This amendment extended the period of reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes while abolishing the provision for the nomination of members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct, and the reason directly explains the assertion. This amendment introduced two significant changes in the framework of representation—extending the period of reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and discontinuing the nomination of members of the Anglo-Indian community.
Question 57: Assertion (A): The 101st Constitutional Amendment institutionalised cooperative federalism in India's indirect tax regime. Reason (R): The GST Council is a constitutional institution in which the participation of both the Union and the States is constitutionally ensured.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The GST Council serves as the constitutional platform for cooperative decision-making on tax policy between the Union and the States. This institutional arrangement makes the 101st Constitutional Amendment an important example of cooperative federalism.
Question 58: Assertion (A): The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments granted constitutional status to local self-government, but the extent of actual decentralization continues to depend on the legislative and administrative decisions of the States. Reason (R): The Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules of the Constitution merely provide a list of potential subjects; the actual transfer of powers takes place through State laws.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules indicate the subjects that may be entrusted to local bodies, but the actual transfer of powers, finances, and functions depends on laws enacted by the States. Therefore, despite receiving constitutional status, the degree of decentralization may vary across different States.
Question 59: Assertion (A): The 44th Constitutional Amendment strengthened institutional checks on the executive’s emergency-related powers. Reason (R): This amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and restored it as a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment introduced important safeguards against the misuse of emergency powers, including requiring the written advice of the Council of Ministers for the proclamation of a National Emergency, strengthening parliamentary oversight, and providing greater protection to certain Fundamental Rights. The amendment also removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and inserted Article 300A, under which it became a constitutional legal right rather than a Fundamental Right. This fact is correct but does not explain the strengthening of institutional checks on emergency powers. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Question 60: Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment attempted to expand Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, but it did not render the Basic Structure Doctrine ineffective. Reason (R): The Basic Structure Doctrine is not found in the text of the Constitution; rather, it has evolved through judicial interpretation.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment sought to make Parliament’s amending power more extensive. However, the Basic Structure Doctrine, which was developed by the Supreme Court through judicial interpretation, continued to serve as a constitutional limitation on Parliament’s power. The reason is correct, but it does not directly explain why the Basic Structure Doctrine remained effective despite the 42nd Amendment; that also requires considering the role of judicial review and subsequent judicial decisions.
Question 61: Assertion (A): The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments made the institutions of local self-government completely financially autonomous. Reason (R): These amendments provided for the establishment of a State Finance Commission in every State.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments did not make Panchayats and Municipalities completely financially autonomous. Instead, they introduced institutional mechanisms to strengthen their financial position. The Reason is correct because both amendments mandated the constitution of a State Finance Commission in every State to review the financial position of local bodies and recommend the distribution of financial resources.
Question 62: Assertion (A): The 44th Constitutional Amendment made the grounds for the proclamation of a National Emergency more stringent. Reason (R): This amendment replaced "Internal Disturbance" with "Armed Rebellion" as the ground for proclaiming a National Emergency.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment made the conditions for proclaiming a National Emergency more stringent by replacing the vague expression "Internal Disturbance" with the narrower term "Armed Rebellion." Thus, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 63: Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment sought to strengthen Parliament's power to amend the Constitution and to curtail the scope of judicial review. Reason (R): The same amendment inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment attempted to strengthen Parliament's amending power and to curtail the scope of judicial review through various constitutional changes. It also inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble. However, the insertion of these words is unrelated to the objective of strengthening Parliament's amending power or limiting judicial review. Therefore, R does not correctly explain A.
Question 64: Assertion (A): The 97th Constitutional Amendment made all provisions relating to Cooperative Societies fully applicable to all States. Reason (R): Subsequently, the Supreme Court declared the provisions relating to State Cooperative Societies unconstitutional for want of ratification by one-half of the States, while upholding the provisions relating to Multi-State Cooperative Societies.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect. In Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah (2021), the Supreme Court held that the provisions of the 97th Constitutional Amendment relating to State Cooperative Societies were unconstitutional because the amendment had not been ratified by at least one-half of the States, as required under Article 368(2). However, the provisions relating to Multi-State Cooperative Societies continued to remain valid. Hence, the Reason is correct.
Question 65: Assertion (A): The 86th Constitutional Amendment made changes only to the Fundamental Rights. Reason (R): The same amendment also amended Article 45 and inserted clause (k) in Article 51A relating to the duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the 86th Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 21A (Fundamental Right to Education), amended Article 45, and inserted Article 51A(k), making it a Fundamental Duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between six and fourteen years of age. Therefore, the Reason is correct.
Question 66: Assertion (A): After the 74th Constitutional Amendment, all Municipalities mandatorily received identical powers and responsibilities. Reason (R): The Constitution empowers the State Legislatures to determine the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities by law.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect because the Constitution does not automatically confer identical powers on all Municipalities. Under Article 243W, the State Legislature determines their powers, authority, and responsibilities through law. Hence, the Reason is correct.
Question 67: Assertion (A): The 73rd Constitutional Amendment provided for the establishment of a State Election Commission to ensure regular elections to Panchayats. Reason (R): A separate constitutional electoral authority was considered necessary to ensure free, fair, and regular elections to local bodies.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both Assertions are correct. Article 243K provides for a State Election Commission responsible for conducting elections to Panchayats. The creation of an independent constitutional authority was intended to ensure free, fair, and regular elections to local self-government institutions.
Question 68: Assertion (A): Under the 44th Constitutional Amendment, a National Emergency can be proclaimed only on the written advice of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): The 44th Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for the President to receive the written advice of the Council of Ministers before proclaiming a National Emergency.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both Assertions are correct. The 44th Constitutional Amendment substituted the earlier practice by requiring that a Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 can be issued only on the written advice of the Union Council of Ministers. This safeguard was introduced to prevent unilateral action and misuse of emergency powers.
Question 69: Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment sought to strengthen the constitutional status of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). Reason (R): The same amendment added certain new Directive Principles and expanded the scope of Article 31C to strengthen the position of the Directive Principles vis-à-vis Fundamental Rights.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both Assertions are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) inserted new Directive Principles such as Article 39A (Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid), Article 43A (Participation of Workers in Management of Industries), and Article 48A (Protection and Improvement of Environment). It also expanded Article 31C to give greater protection to laws implementing any Directive Principle (though this expansion was later struck down by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case). Hence, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 70: Assertion (A): The 86th Constitutional Amendment introduced the Right to Education only as a Directive Principle of State Policy. Reason (R): The 86th Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 21A into the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years by inserting Article 21A into the Constitution. The Reason is correct.
Question 71: Assertion (A): The 74th Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to Municipalities. Reason (R): This amendment granted constitutional recognition to the Gram Sabha.
Correct Answer:
C
— A is correct, but R is incorrect.
Explanation:
The Assertion is correct. The 74th Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to Municipalities and inserted Part IXA into the Constitution. The Reason is incorrect because the constitutional provision relating to the Gram Sabha was introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
Question 72: Assertion (A): The 73rd Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Reason (R): This amendment inserted Part IX into the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution, thereby granting constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 73: Assertion (A): The 61st Constitutional Amendment increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha from five years to six years. Reason (R): The 61st Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 did not alter the tenure of the Lok Sabha. It reduced the minimum voting age from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326. The extension of the Lok Sabha's tenure from five years to six years was introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 and was subsequently reversed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, which restored the normal tenure to five years. Therefore, the Reason is correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Question 74: Assertion (A): The 52nd Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provisions. Reason (R): The same amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule into the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law and inserted the Tenth Schedule into the Constitution for this purpose. The Tenth Schedule provides the constitutional basis for the anti-defection provisions. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Question 75: Assertion (A): The 44th Constitutional Amendment retained the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right. Reason (R): After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the Right to Property was protected as a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
Correct Answer:
D
— A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Explanation:
The Assertion is incorrect. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 abolished the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right by deleting Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. It inserted Article 300A, under which the Right to Property became a constitutional legal right, not a Fundamental Right. Therefore, the Reason is correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Question 76: Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" into the Preamble of the Constitution. Reason (R): One of the objectives of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment was to explicitly express certain fundamental ideological principles of the Constitution in the Preamble.
Correct Answer:
A
— Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words "Socialist," "Secular," and those relating to the "Integrity of the Nation" into the Preamble. Its objective was to express the ideological commitments of the Constitution more explicitly. Therefore, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.